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Code d'Examen: 50-650
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Internet Security Management with BorderManager 3.5 Enterprise Edition)
Questions et réponses: 179 Q&As

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NO.1 Your company has six NetWare 5 servers (Serv1, Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5 and Serv6. One use
NetWare 3.12 (Serv7) server. This tree has only one existing partition, the [Root] partition. The servers
were installed in the following order Serv1, Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5, and Serv6. You have just finished
upgrading Serv7 to NetWare 5. Which servers hold a replica of the [Root] partition? (Choose four.)
A. Serv1
B. Serv2
C. Serv3
D. Serv4
E. Serv5
F. Serv6
G. Serv7
Answer: A,B,C,G

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NO.2 What is the message content of a type 31CMP packet?
A. Echo Reply
B. Time Exceeded
C. Parameter Problem
D. Address Mask Reply
E. Destination Unreachable
Answer: E

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NO.3 Which statement is true regarding secondary time server types? (Choose two.)
A. They do not participate in voting for time.
B. They must get their time form a primary server.
C. They adjust their time 50% to match the established network time.
D. By default, they use configured lists to direct them to which server to get time.
E. They can get their time form single reference, reference, primary, and secondary servers.
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Which time servers participate in voting for the correct time? (Choose two.)
A. Master
B. Primary
C. Reference
D. Single reference
E. Secondary reference
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which statement is true about a single reference time server?
A. It gets its time from a reference time server.
B. It does not advertise itself as a time provider.
C. It cannot coexist with primary or other reference servers.
D. It must have another reference or primary server to negotiate time with.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which tasks are involved in defining a security policy? (Choose 3)
A. Impalement a VPN
B. Identify the threats
C. Compare software solutions
D. Identify network resources
E. Identify unauthorized access
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.7 Which time server***** is the default configuration for the second or subsequent servers installed in the
tree?
A. Master
B. Primary
C. Reference
D. Secondary
E. Single reference
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement about merging NDS trees is valid?
A. Time does not need to be synchronized for the merge to be successful.
B. All server in the target tree ***** of the target [Root] get removed from the new [Root]'s replica list
C. The server that contained the master replica of the source tree [Root] receives a read/write replica of
the new [Root].
D. All servers in the tree must receive a replica of [Root] of the tree they are in before the merge process
can be started.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are trying to determine if NAT is working. Which server console command to be used to determine
if filters are configured to deny outgoing IP packets?
A. PING
B. TCPCON
C. INETCFG
D. FILTCFG
E. NIASCFG
Answer: D

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NO.10 In an IPX environment, which methods do servers use to find each other to synchronization? (Choose
two.)
A. TCP/IP
B. NTP.NLM
C. Configured lists
D. Service Advertising Protocol (SAP)
E. NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP)
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 What needs to be done to allow servers to find any time server rega******f the tree it's in?
A. Set Directory tree mode to off
B. Set timesync restart flag to on
C. Set Service Advertising Protocol to off
D. Set the default time server type to reference
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which statement is true regarding reference time server?
A. It does not advertise itself *** ** provider.
B. It cannot coexist with other primary time servers.
C. It gets its time from a single *** *** time server.
D. It negotiates time with primary time server, but does not adjust its internal clock.
Answer: D

Novell   certification 50-650   50-650   50-650

NO.13 Which statement about the BorderManager 3.5 installation process is true?
A. NETBASIC.NLM must be loaded on the server prior to installation.
B. You must configure your servers and clients to use TCP/IP prior to installation.
C. Installation can be done remotely using RCONSOLE with the CD mounted on your local machine.
D. You can install on a remote server If you copy the contents of the CD to a mounted volume on that
server.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement about time synchronization is true?
A. Time synchronization is a service that records time changes at the server console.
B. Time synchronization is a service that maintains consistent time throughout the network.
C. Time synchronization is a service that determines the correct time throughout the network.
D. Time synchronization is a service that records changes in time security events throughout the network.
Answer: B

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NO.15 If a secondary time server is not synchronized to a single reference time server *** percentage of the
time difference does the secondary time server make during the next polling process?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%
Answer: E

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NO.16 What are benefits of using BorderManager proxy acceleration? (Choose 2.)
A. Web server IP addresses are kept hidden from the Internet
B. Workstation IP addresses are kept hidden from the Internet
C. Cached web pages are delivered to your internal users 60% faster
D. Workstations can access the Internet without having full IP support installed
E. On proxy server can act as several web servers *** ** fault to tolerance
Answer: A,E

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NO.17 CORRECT TEXT
Exhibit
Given the
information in the graphic, how many proxy access requests have been satisfied by requesting the
information from the source web server? (Enter the number.)
Answer: 3

NO.18 Which tasks are involved in defining a security policy? (Choose 3)
A. Limit access
B. Identify the threats
C. Compare software solutions
D. Identify network resources
E. Analyze organizational performance
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.19 In a time provider group, which server carries the *** ***voting on a time?
A. Primary
B. Reference
C. Secondary
D. Single reference
Answer: B

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NO.20 You have installed the first four servers in your company's NDS tree. You accepted all time defaults
when installing. What type of time servers exist in your tree?
A. 1 primary and 3 secondaries
B. 1 reference and 3 secondaries
C. 1 single reference and 3 secondaries
D. 1 reference, 2 primaries, and 1 secondary
E. 1 single reference, 1 primary, and 2 secondaries
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which utilities allow you to change the time synchronization type for a server? (Choose two.)
A. MONITOR.NLM
B. NDS Manager
C. DSREPAIR.NLM
D. NetWare Administrator
E. The SET parameters at the server console
Answer: A

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NO.22 You have been asked to troubleshoot your client's issue of timeout synchronized throughout the
network. Your client has five servers in the tree located at their headquarters. The time configuration for
each server is as follows. Time server type Configured lists Serv1 Single reference off Serv2 Primary off
Serv3 Secondary off Serv4 Secondary off Serv5 Secondary off What is preventing time from being
synchronized?
A. There needs to be more than one primary time ***
B. Configured Lists needs to be turned on *** **
C. Configured Lists needs to be turned on *** ** secondary servers.
D. A single reference time server cannot co-exist on the primary time server.
E. Configured Lists needs to be turned **** primary and single reference server.
Answer: D

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NO.23 You have installed the first NetWare 5 server for your company and accepted all default settings. What
type of time server is the server?
A. Primary
B. Reference
C. Secondary
D. Single reference
E. Secondary reference
Answer: D

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NO.24 What system is used to adjust different time zones to get an equivalent time for time synchronization?
A. Time stamps
B. Standard time
C. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)
D. Daylight saving time offset
E. Universal Time Coordinated (UTC)
Answer: E

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NO.25 Which file can you view to identify the default filter exceptions to the BorderManger filters?
A. FILE.TXT
B. ALLFILT.TXT
C. FILTEXCP.TXT
D. The file specified by the user when filters are saved to a text file.
Answer: D

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NO.26 By default, if a NetWare server is synchronization on the network, how frequently does it check for time?
A. Every 3 minutes
B. Every 5 minutes
C. Every 10 minutes
D. Every 15 minutes
E. Every 20 minutes
Answer: C

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NO.27 .You are the NDS expert in your company. You are getting ready to merge the EMA_2 tree into the
EMA tree. You are using Servl from the EMA_2 tree *** from the EMA tree to perform the merge. The
following is the partition and replica listing for each tree. EMA_2 [Root] EMA [Root] Serv1 Master Serv2
Read/write Serv3 Read/write Serv4 Master Serv5 Read/write Serv6 Read/write Which Server will get a
replica of the [Root] partition after the merge? (Choose four.)
A. Serv1
B. Serv2
C. Serv3
D. Serv4
E. Serv5
F. Serv6
Answer: A,D,E,F

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NO.28 Which time server types advertise that they are a time provider? (Choose 3.)
A. Master
B. Primary
C. Reference
D. Secondary
E. Single reference
F. Secondary reference
Answer: B,C,E

Novell examen   50-650   50-650

NO.29 By default, when is a server *** *not being synchronized to the network?
A. When it's more than one seconds different than the network time.
B. When it's more than two seconds different than the network time.
C. When it's more than three seconds different than the
D. When it's more than four seconds different than the network time.
E. When it's more than five seconds different than the network time.
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which statements are true regarding NDS rights after merging them? (Choose two.)
A. The trustee list (ACL) of the source tree [Root] is discard.
B. The admin object in the target tree loses all rights to [Root]
C. The source NDS tree user object used in the merge **** granted Supervisor object rights to the entire
new NDS tree.
D. The target server object will be granted rights to ****** of new NDS tree.
Answer: A,C

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Code d'Examen: 920-804
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (Nortel technology standards and protocols for converged networks)
Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

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NO.1 A company wants its network to be configured and if necessary upgraded to enable it to handle the
addition of VoIP traffic along with other IP data. During the network assessment you identify: ?The core of
the network is a high-speed data center where there is ample bandwidth to support the addition of VoIP
traffic. ?The remote offices that the data center services are all connected via Frame Relay (FR). After
setting up several NetIQ Chariot VoIP endpoints at remote - office locations, you identify the following
issues: ?Excessive delays during peak hours, as much as 200 milliseconds on round trips. ?There are
dropped packets even at low usage rates. ?The jitter across the FR links is excessive when it is greater
than 30 milliseconds. Which two changes should occur before the customer's network is declared VoIP -
ready? (Choose two.)
A. Upgrade the data center to Layer 3 switching.
B. Modify the 802.1p values on the VLANs to reduce the dropped packets to the remote sites.
C. Increase the Committed Information Rate (CIR) to guarantee that enough bandwidth is available to the
remote sites.
D. Implement traffic prioritization for shaping and policing on the routers (data center and remote offices)
to ensure that VoIP traffic is prioritized over non-time-sensitive traffic.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 A customer wants to implement VoIP network in their LAN/WAN environment. Following the network
assessment, you have to make the appropriate recommendations to address network issues that can
cause problems for real-time VoIP traffic. Based on the following, what should be your first
recommendation?
A. Use media shared hubs for LAN connection.
B. Change the CODEC selection for LAN devices only.
C. Put call servers, signaling servers and media gateways on one VLAN.
D. Configure all interfaces to eliminate duplex mismatch and set to auto negotiate.
Answer: D

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NO.3 After assessing a customer's network in preparation for a multi-site LAN/WAN VoIP deployment, you
have determined the following: ?Average 5% dropped packets in end to end tests ?Intermittent voice
muting ?Unacceptable delay The customer wishes to upgrade their network and correct these
deficiencies. Suggest one solution that will give the most noticeable improvement and prepare the
network for future growth with the least complexity.
A. Implement an all optical network.
B. Reduce frame size for all packets.
C. Increase LAN/WAN bandwidth by 30%.
D. Implement QoS technique like DiffServ.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are using Net IQ Chariot on a customer's LAN to complete QoS testing with pre-defined data flow
emulation templates. You want to check that the current DiffServ settings will achieve the desired results.
Which parameters will provide you with the required information? (Choose two.)
A. transaction rate
B. network throughput
C. precedence settings
D. resource reservation
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Which statement about the requirements of VoIP network assessments is true?
A. Physical diagrams define the network operating systems that will be tested.
B. Calling patterns define the current peak-period usages of the data networks that will be tested.
C. Physical diagrams define the network-interface speeds, modes, and protocols that will be tested.
D. Calling patterns help determine the potential dates for shutting down the network to perform the
testing.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Given the following network information: ?A company with a mixed VoIP and data network is
experiencing bad voice quality with VoIP calls during normal business hours. ?Tests within their LAN
segments warn of excessive jitter, delay, and in some cases packet retransmissions. ?There is a pair of
switches that all traffic converges upon. The link between the two switches is a 100/Full Fast Ethernet
connection that is operating at near maximum capacity for the majority of the day. ?At any given time, the
estimated traffic on the link between the two switches is 200 Mbps. Which two configuration changes will
improve the voice quality of the VoIP calls and prevent possible VoIP issues in the future between these
two switches? (Choose two.)
A. Place a router between the two switches and configure the 100 Mbps links to the two switches with a
higher QoS for VoIP traffic.
B. Prioritize the traffic on the switches to give VoIP improved QoS. Prioritize only the traffic on the
switches to give VoIP calls improved QoS.
C. Provide a larger aggregated bandwidth of 300 Mbps by trunking three interfaces together on the two
switches using Multilink Trunks (MLTs).
D. Purchase two new Layer 2 switches that are capable of gigabit Ethernet to replace the Fast Ethernet
connection with a single gigabit Ethernet connection.
Answer: BC

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NO.7 A company requests that their VoIP network be assessed to determine if some changes can be made
to alleviate bandwidth limitations. Given the following network information: ?The CODEC is G.711. ?Voice
Activity Detection (VAD) is NOT being used. ?The company wants to keep the bandwidth usage on its
Frame Relay (T1/E1 and T3/E3) circuits less than 50% of the overall bandwidth. ?The company will allow
the quality of the intelligible voice to degrade slightly in favor of a significant increase in total number of
calls possible on their circuits. ?They will NOT accept additional packetization delay since their network
is already at the maximum limit of acceptable delay (maximum delay budget) between the Internet
Telephones and the call server. Which configuration change will increase the number of VoIP calls
possible on the company's Frame Relay circuits?
A. Increase the packetization rate from 20 milliseconds to 30 milliseconds and decrease the jitter buffer.
B. Increase the packetization rate from 20 milliseconds to 30 milliseconds to gain approximately 20%
more calls.
C. Change the CODEC to G.729 with the same packetization factor of 20 milliseconds to more than
double the possible calls on the Frame Relay circuits.
D. There is NO way to increase the number of calls possible within the bandwidth restrictions unless they
are willing to re-engineer their network with a larger-bandwidth circuits.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Click the exhibit button. An organization with a newly deployed VoIP network is complaining of poor
VoIP call quality. Given the following issues that have been reported by the company management: ?VoIP
call quality on the first four Internet Telephones is good during non-peak hours of business. ?VoIP call
quality degrades during the day around 10:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. ?VoIP call quality degrades in the
evening hours when more than six Internet Telephones are making calls at the same time. The
organization has sent you a protocol decode of a Real Time Protocol Control Protocol (RTPCP) packet
(see the exhibit). It shows some information about the quality of the VoIP calls during the peak hours.
Which two conclusions should you reach from analyzing this datagram? (Choose two.)
A. This capture is inconclusive and a long-term detailed capture is required.
B. The indication of dropped packets is NOT an issue because the fraction-lost value is zero.
C. Cumulative packets-lost value indicates that the network is dropping VoIP data resulting in lost audio
information.
D. The interarrival-jitter value indicates network issues and the likelihood of delayed audio between
Internet Telephones.
E. The interarrival-jitter value is within typical VoIP functional ranges and does NOT impact Internet
Telephone performance.
Answer: CD

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NO.9 A customer is planning a new VoIP network based on their existing PBX and corporate network. They
need historical information about calling patterns in order to plan for VoIP traffic. What is the best source
of this type historical information?
A. Operational Measurements from switch
B. Error messages from all networking devices
C. Alarm indications from all networking devices
D. Log reports from switch and all networking devices
Answer: A

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NO.10 Given the following network assessment information: ?At all times of the day there is sufficient
bandwidth between all test points sitting on the LAN drops as well as the remote offices across the WAN
circuits where Internet Telephones will be placed. ?All the call servers, media gateways and signaling
servers are on the same VLAN along with the data network traffic. ?All of the servers are duplicated on
the network to ensure five nines (99.999%) of reliability and call handling. ?There is only one
physical/logical path to each LAN drop and remote office. ?The architecture of the network is in a physical
star topology with all VoIP processing servers at the center of the star, including the duplicate
servers. ?Each of the remote sites were built from the ground up for VoIP and data traffic with NO regard
for any call processing locally. All calls must go back to the campus network. Which three
recommendations should you make to the customer concerning their network to enable it to support VoIP
traffic? (Choose three.)
A. Add data path redundancy to give the network survivability.
B. Ensure that a backup generator sustains the power of all the network equipment.
C. Recommend a re-evaluation to obtain network delay and jitter information to ensure that these
properties are within the appropriate bounds.
D. Segment the call server, media gateway, and signaling server to appropriate VLANs to ensure
signaling traffic is NOT impacted by standard IP data.
Answer: ACD

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Code d'Examen: 200-530
Nom d'Examen: Zend-Technologies (Zend PHP 5.3 Certification)
Questions et réponses: 254 Q&As

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NO.1 Which requirements need NOT be met so that file uploads work?
A. The PHP directive file_uploads must be set to on
B. The form's method attribute must be set to "post"
C. Sate mode must be turned off so that the uploaded file an be written to the server
D. The form's enctype attribute must be set to "multipart/form-data"
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the ideal method of copying data between two opened files?
A. copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B. copy(destination_file, $source_file);
C. stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D. stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E. stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);
Answer: C

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NO.3 What tags can always be used to begin a PHP script? (Choose 2)
A. <?php
B. <?
C. <%
D. <%php
E. <script language="php">
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 You want to extract the pieces of a date string, which looks like this: "2005-11-02". Which of the
following pieces of code will property assign $year, $month and $day with their respective values?
A. sscanf("2005-11-02", '%d-%d-%d', $year, $month, $day);
B. scan("2005-11-02", '%d-%d-%d', $year, $month, $day);
C. sscanf('%d-%d-%d', "2005-11-02", $year, $month, $day);
D. sscan($year, $month, $date '%d-%d-%d', "2005-11-02");
Answer: A

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NO.5 A/hen comparing prepared statements and regular, application-constructed SQL statements, which of
the following is true?
A. Prepared statements are faster
B. Prepared statements are always shorter
C. Prepared statements are more secure
D. Prepared statements are easier to develop
E. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
What is the output of the following code?
Answer: 1

NO.7 What is the output of the following code?
echo '1' . (print '2') + 3;
A. 123
B. 213
C. 142
D. 214
E. Syntax error
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following rules must every correct XML document adhere to? (Choose 2)
A. It has to be well-formed.
B. It has to be valid.
C. It has to be associated to a DTD.
D. It may only contain UTF-8 encoded characters.
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which of the following code snippets writes the content of the °sou r ce .t x¡± t ¡ °t arg e t . xt
A. file_put_contents("target.txt", fopen("source.txt", "r"));
B. file_put_contents("target.txt", readfile("source.txt"));
C. file_put_contents("target.txt", join(file("source.txt"), ""));
D. file_put_contents("target.txt", file_get_contents("source.txt"));
E. $handle = fopen("target.txt", "w+"); fwrite($handle, file_get_contents("source.txt")); fclose($handle);
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.10 What is the output of the following code?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: D

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NO.11 CORRECT TEXT
What is the output of the following code?
Answer: 2

NO.12 Which of the following statements about PHP is true? (Choose 3)
A. A final class can be derived.
B. A final class may be instantiated.
C. A class with a final function may be derived.
D. Static functions can be final.
E. Properties can be final.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.13 CORRECT TEXT
Which DOMElement property provides a reference to the list of Element's children?
Answer: childNodes

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NO.14 The following form is loaded in a recent browser and submitted, with the second list element selected:
<form method="post">
<select name="list">
<option>one</option>
<option>two</option>
<option>three</option>
</select>
</form>
In the server-side PHP code to deal with the form data, what is the value of $_POST ['list']?
A. 1
B. 2
C. two
D. null (since the <code> value attribute of the list has not been set)
Answer: C

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NO.15 An HTML form contains this form element
<input type="file" name="myFile" />
When this form is submitted, the following PHP code gets executed:
move_uploaded_file(
$_FILES['myFile']['tmp_name'],
'uploads/' . $_FILES['myFile']['name']);
Which of the following actions must be taken before this code may go into production?
(Choose 2)
A. Check with is_uploaded_file() whether the uploaded file $_FILES['myFile']['tmp_name'] is valid
B. Sanitize the file name in $_FILES['myFile']['name'] because this value is not consistent among web
browsers
C. Check the charset encoding of the HTTP request to see whether it matches the encoding of the
uploaded file
D. Sanitize the file name in $_FILES['myFile']['name'] because this value could be forged
E. Use $HTTP_POST_FILES instead of $_FILES to maintain upwards compatibility
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C

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NO.17 What will be the result of the following operation?
array_combine(array("A","B","C"), array(1,2,3));
A. array("A","B",C",1,2,3)
B. array(1,2,3,"A","B",C")
C. array("A"=>1,"B"=>2,"C"=>3)
D. array(1=>"A",2=>"B",3=>"C")
E. array(1,2,3)
Answer: C

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NO.18 Consider the following two files. When you run test.php, what would the output look like?
A. 12, 12
B. 12, 24
C. 24, 12
D. 24, 24
E. PHP Fetal error. Cannot redeclare strlen()
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the return value of the following code?
strpos("me myself and I", "m", 2)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 0
E. 1
Answer: B

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NO.20 Assuming UTF-8 encoding, what is the value of $count?
A. false
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: B

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NO.21 You'd like to use the class MyDBConnection that's defined in the
MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer namespace, but you want to minimize *as much as
possible* the length of the class name you have to type. What would you do?
A. Import the MyGreatFramework namespace
B. Import the MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer namespace
C. Alias MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer\MyDBConnection to a shorter name
D. Alias MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer to a shorter name
Answer: B

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This removes the need to prefix the class with the namespace name. You can refer to the class simply as
®M y DBC onnec ti o ¡¯

NO.22 An HTML form has two buttons. After submitting the form, how could you determine with PHP which
button was clicked?
A. An HTML form may only have one button.
B. Hook up JavaScript the form to add a value to the URL depending on which button has been clicked.
C. Put the two buttons in individual form elements with different action attribute.
D. Assign name and value attributes to each button and use $_GET or $_POST to find out which button
has been clicked.
Answer: D

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NO.23 How can the line on which HTTP headers were sent inside a script be determined?
A. Using the headers_sent() function.
B. Using the output_start() function.
C. Using the ob_start() function.
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following is used to find all PHP files under a certain directory?
A. PHPIterator
B. RecursiveTreelterator
C. RecursiveDirectorylterator
D. SplTempFileObject
Answer: C

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NO.25 What is the output of the following code?
A. 0
B. An integer overflow error
C. A warning, because $x1 is not set
D. A warning, because $x2 is not set
E. A floating-point overflow error
F. Nothing
Answer: D

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NO.26 CORRECT TEXT
Which PHP function sets a cookie whose value does not get URL encoded when sending it to the
browser?
Answer: setrawcookie()

NO.27 An object can be counted with count() and sizeof() if it ­ ..
A. implements ArrayAccess
B. has a public__count() method
C. was cast to an object from an array
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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- It must implement the count() method (no underscores)

NO.28 Which PHP function relieves a 1st of HTTP headers that have been sent as part of the HTTP response
or are ready to be sent?
A. header()
B. headers()
C. header_list()
D. header_sent()
E. getresponseheaders0
Answer: C

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NO.29 When setting HTTP headers from PHP, how can you make sure that your application sends the same
header twice, with different values?
A. Set the second argument of the header() function to false
B. PHP does that automatically
C. One kind of header may only be sent once
D. Use the header_add() function
Answer: A

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NO.30 CORRECT TEXT
What is the name of the key in $_FILES['name'] that contains the number of bytes of the uploaded file?
Answer: size

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I10-002 dernières questions d'examen certification XML Master et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: I10-002
Nom d'Examen: XML Master (XML Master: Professional V2)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document".
Assume that the character "3" is obtained from the "XML document". Select which XSLT style sheet
correctly performs the transformation. (Multiple answers possible. Select two.)
A. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " //data[x='1'][y='2'] " />
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
B. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " //data[(attribute::x='1') and (text()='3')] " />
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
C. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " //data[self='3'] " />
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
D. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " //data[self::*='3'] " />
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
Answer: BD

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NO.2 Which of the following describes the most correct call order of the ContentHandler interface methods
when parsing the following "XML Document" using a non-validating SAX parser? This question reflects
line feeds within the XML document.
[XML Document]
<a>
<b>
c
</b>
</a>
A. startDocument - startElement - characters - startElement - characters - characters - characters -
endElement - characters - endElement - endDocument
B. startDocument - startElement - ignorableWhitespace - startElement - ignorableWhitespace -
characters - ignorableWhitespace - endElement - ignorableWhitespace - endElement - endDocument
C. startDocument - startElement - startElement - characters - endElement - endElement - endDocument
D. startDocument - startElement - startElement - characters - characters - endElement - endElement -
endDocumentW
Answer: A

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NO.3 What must you write in XSLT style sheet (1) to process the following "XML Document" and obtain the
following "transform results"? Select the correct answer below. Note that "#" indicates a line feed, and "=*"
indicates a tab.
Assume that the XSLT processor can output transformation results as a document.
A. Nothing needs to be written.
B. <xml:space="preserve"/>
C. <xsl:preserve-space elements="content"/>
D. <xsl:strip-space elements="doc body"/>
Answer: D

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NO.4 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document 1" and "XML Document 2," and process
XML using "DOM Processing."
Select which of the following is the most appropriate expression of the results under XML 1.0. Line feeds
and/or indents are not reflected in the results.
A. <root2 xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:EX2">
<data xmlns= " urn:xmlmaster:EX1 " >string value</data>
</root2>
B. <root2 xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:EX2">
<data>string value</data>
</root2>
C. <root2 xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:EX2">
<data xmlns= " urn:xmlmaster:EX1 " />
</root2>
D. <root2 xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:EX2">
<data/>
</root2>
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following correctly describes the DOM (Level 2) Node interface?
A. The Node interface can be used to change the value (nodeValue) of the DOM element node (Element)
B. The Node interface can be used to change the name (nodeName) of the DOM element node (Element)
C. The Node interface can be used to change the value (nodeValue) of the DOM attribute node (Attr)
D. The Node interface can be used to change the name (nodeName) of the DOM attribute node (Attr)
Answer: C

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NO.6 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document".
[XML Document]
<root><data>lmnop</data></root>
Assume that the "XML document" is changed to the "Results XML Document." Select which XSLT style
sheet correctly performs the transformation.
Note that the XSLT processor can output transformation results as a document.
[Results XML Document]
<lmnop/>
Or
<lmnop></lmnop>
A. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root/data " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " data " >
<xsl:element name="<xsl:value-of select='.'/>"/>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
B. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root/data " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " data " >
<xsl:element name="{ . }"/>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
C. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root/data " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " data " >
<xsl:element name="."/>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
D. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root/data " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " data " >
<xsl:text disable-output-escaping="no"><</xsl:text>
<xsl:value-of select="."/>
<xsl:text disable-output-escaping="no">/></xsl:text>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
Answer: B

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NO.7 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document".
Select which of the following correctly describes the output results of an XSLT transformation of the "XML
Document" using the "XSLT Style Sheet".
Note that the XSLT processor can output transformation results as a document. Line feeds and indents
are not reflected.
A. <record>
<data>100</data>
</record>
B. <record xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:test">
<data>100</data>
</record>
C. <record xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:test">
<data xmlns= "" >100</data>
</record>
D. <record>
<data>100</data>
<data>70</data>
</record>
E. <record xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:test">
<data>100</data>
<data>70</data>
</record>
F. <record xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:test">
<data xmlns= "" >100</data>
<data xmlns= "" >70</data>
</record>
Answer: F

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NO.8 Select which of the following correctly describes WSDL. (WSDL 1.1)
A. WSDL assumes SOAP as the message transmission form
B. When WSDL is defined by a combination of style="rpc" and use="encoded", then
encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" must be designated
C. When WSDL is defined by a combination of style="rpc" and use="encoded", then the encodingStyle
attribute cannot be designated
D. WSDL may be defined by a combination of style="rpc" and use="literal"
Answer: D

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NO.9 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML document".
[XML Document]
<root><data>lmnop</data></root>
Assume that the "XML Document" is changed to the "Results XML Document." Select which XSLT style
sheet correctly performs the transformation.
Note that the XSLT processor can output transformation results as a document.
[Results XML Document]
<ZZZ><YYY>lmnop</YYY></ZZZ>
A. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:include href="exam.xsl" />
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<AAA><BBB><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></BBB></AAA>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
[exam.xsl]
<xsl:stylesheet version= " 1.0 " xmlns:xsl= " http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform " >
<xsl:template match= " //root " >
<ZZZ><YYY><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></YYY></ZZZ>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
B. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:import href="exam.xsl" />
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<AAA><BBB><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></BBB></AAA>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
[exam.xsl]
<xsl:stylesheet version= " 1.0 " xmlns:xsl= " http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform " >
<xsl:template match= " //root " >
<ZZZ><YYY><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></YYY></ZZZ>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
C. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:include href="exam.xsl" />
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<AAA><BBB><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></BBB></AAA>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
[exam.xsl]
<xsl:stylesheet version= " 1.0 " xmlns:xsl= " http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform " >
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<ZZZ><YYY><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></YYY></ZZZ>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
D. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:import href="exam.xsl" />
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<AAA><BBB><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></BBB></AAA>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
[exam.xsl]
<xsl:stylesheet version= " 1.0 " xmlns:xsl= " http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform " >
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<ZZZ><YYY><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></YYY></ZZZ>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
Answer: A

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NO.10 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document".
[XML Document]
<TestML xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:testml">
<record level="1" data="100" />
<record level="2" data="250" />
</TestML>
Choose the XML Schema Document that does not correctly define the structure of the "XML Document".
A. <xs:schema
xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
targetNamespace="urn:xmlmaster:testml"
xmlns:tns="urn:xmlmaster:testml" >
<xs:element name="TestML" type=" tns:testmlType " />
<xs:complexType name="testmlType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref=" tns:record " maxOccurs="unbounded" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="record" type=" tns:recordType " />
<xs:complexType name="recordType">
<xs:attribute name="level" type="xs:int" />
<xs:attribute name="data" type="xs:int" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
B. <xs:schema
xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
targetNamespace="urn:xmlmaster:testml"
xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:testml" >
<xs:element name="TestML" type=" testmlType " />
<xs:complexType name="testmlType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref=" record " maxOccurs="unbounded" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="record" type=" recordType " />
<xs:complexType name="recordType">
<xs:attribute name="level" type="xs:int" />
<xs:attribute name="data" type="xs:int" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
C. <xs:schema
xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
targetNamespace="urn:xmlmaster:testml" >
<xs:element name="TestML" type=" testmlType " />
<xs:complexType name="testmlType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref=" record " maxOccurs="unbounded" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="record" type=" recordType " />
<xs:complexType name="recordType">
<xs:attribute name="level" type="xs:int" />
<xs:attribute name="data" type="xs:int" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
D. <schema
xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
targetNamespace="urn:xmlmaster:testml"
xmlns:tns="urn:xmlmaster:testml">
<element name="TestML" type="tns:testmlType" />
<complexType name="testmlType">
<sequence>
<element ref="tns:record" maxOccurs="unbounded" />
</sequence>
</complexType>
<element name="record" type="tns:recordType" />
<complexType name="recordType">
<attribute name="level" type="int" />
<attribute name="data" type="int" />
</complexType>
</schema>
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: VCA410-DT
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Associate - Desktop)
Questions et réponses: 178 Q&As

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NO.1 In a new floating linked-clone pool, a desktop shows a status of Provisioned.
What does this indicate?
A. The desktop is powered off and has been created, but needs to be customized.
B. The desktop is powered on and has been created, but needs to be customized.
C. The desktop is powered off and has been created and customized.
D. The desktop is powered on and has been created and customized.
Answer: C

VMware   VCA410-DT   VCA410-DT   VCA410-DT

NO.2 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and notices that under Problem Desktops,
there is one desktop identified as Agent Unreachable.
What does this desktop status indicate?
A. The desktop server service is disabled.
B. The desktop messenger service is unable to send messages to the Agent.
C. The desktop firewall service is blocking ports needed by the Agent.
D. The desktop network service is disabled.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How can an administrator inform a pool user that a recompose will take place?
A. click on Users and Groups > select pool > click Send Message
B. click on Pools > select their pool > click Sessions tab > highlight user > click Send Message
C. click on Pools > highlight their pool > click More Commands > choose Send Message
D. click on Global Settings > click Edit > check Display warning before recompose > enter a message
Answer: B

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NO.4 A user reports being unable to log in to his remote desktop. The administrator needs to identify the root
cause of this issue.
Which two fields in View Administrator will assist with identifying the state of the desktops? (Choose two.)
A. Remote Session > Session State
B. Help Desk > Session State
C. Desktops > Status
D. Problem Desktops > Status
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 An administrator accesses the View Administrator Console Dashboard and sees a Desktop with the
error:
Customization operation timed out
What is the most likely cause of the error?
A. The datastore containing the virtual machine has been formatted for NTFS.
B. The datastore containing the virtual machine has the block size set too high.
C. The datastore containing the virtual machine has an NFS mount.
D. The datastore containing the virtual machine has run out of space.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three error states are reported by View Administrator in the Problem Desktops tab? (Choose
three.)
A. persistent disk offline
B. replica not responding
C. stuck in provisioning
D. report ready, but not accepting connections
E. powered on but not responding
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what does the number next to the red exclamation mark indicate?
There are three problem events recorded.
A. There are three problems.
B. There are three potential problems.
C. There are three warning events recorded.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In a Dedicated pool, a desktop shows a status of Configuration Error.
What does this indicate?
A. The display protocol is not enabled.
B. The display protocol is enabled.
C. The pool is not enabled.
D. The pool is enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What does the yellow double arrow indicate when monitoring within the Dashboard > System Health >
View components pane?
A. agent issue
B. low performance
C. alert
D. warning
Answer: D

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NO.10 An administrator needs to update a single desktop in a pool and prohibit the user from logging in to the
desktop while updating it.
After going to the Inventory page of the pool and selecting the desktop, what must the administrator do to
ensure the user is unable to log in to the desktop?
A. choose Enter Maintenance Mode
B. choose Send Message
C. choose Disconnect Session
D. choose Logoff Session
Answer: A

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NO.11 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and sees a red arrow beside the Transfer
Server. The administrator verifies that the Transfer Server can be pinged by the DNS name. The arrow
beside the Transfer Server in the Dashboard remains red.
What does the red arrow indicate in this situation?
A. The Transfer Server service is down.
B. The Transfer Server web service is down.
C. The Transfer Server is powered off.
D. The Transfer Server repository is offline.
Answer: A

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NO.12 An administrator goes to View Administrator on the Connection Server CS1 and looks through the
Events to see if there are any errors. The administrator sees the following error:
Provisioning error occurred for Machine Desktop1: Customization error due to no network communication
between the View agent and the Connection Server.
According to the View Administrator Guide, what are two recommended troubleshooting steps that can be
taken to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. go to Desktop1 and do a telnet CS1 4001
B. go to Desktop1 and do a telnet Desktop1 4001
C. go to Desktop1 and do a nslookup Desktop1
D. go to Desktop1 and do a nslookup CS1
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and notices that a desktop is Checked
Out.
What does this indicate?
A. The desktop is locked on the physical client system and active on the remote system.
B. The desktop is unlocked on the physical client system and active on the remote system.
C. The desktop is locked on the remote system and active on the physical client system.
D. The desktop is unlocked on the remote system and active on the physical client system.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which third-party tool can be used to store event data after it has been cycled off of the Dashboard?
A. Microsoft Excel
B. Crystal Reports
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. MySQL
Answer: C

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
A user is experiencing difficulties connecting to her desktop.
Based on the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the user being unable to log in?
The desktop is suspended.
A. The administrator is already logged in.
B. The user is already logged in.
C. The desktop is off.
Answer: B

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NO.16 An administrator goes to Desktops on the View Administrator and notices a status of Startup.
Which two conditions does this status indicate? (Choose two.)
A. The display protocol has started.
B. The View Agent has started.
C. The View Agent is still starting.
D. The display protocol is still starting.
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 View Administrator shows a desktop pool with 100 remote and 20 local sessions displayed.
What does this indicate.?
A. The pool has 20 sessions available for local users.
B. The pool has 120 users with sessions.
C. The pool has 120 sessions available for users.
D. The pool has 100 active sessions and 20 sessions available for users.
Answer: B

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NO.18 In the View Administrator Dashboard, what does a gray question mark beside Other Components -
Domains indicate?
A. The domain is Active Directory 2008-based.
B. The domain is LDAP-based.
C. The domain is Active Directory 2000-based.
D. The domain is Kerberos-based.
Answer: D

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NO.19 An administrator goes to Desktops on the View Administrator and notices a status of Provisioning.
What does this status most likely indicate?
A. The desktop is being customized by Sysprep.
B. The desktop is being customized by Quickprep.
C. The desktop is being created by the vCenter Server.
D. The desktop is being validated by the Security Server.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A View administrator wants to programmatically determine Desktop entitlements for a user in a script.
What is the correct syntax to query user data with vdmadmin?
A. vdmadmin -U domainuser
B. vdmadmin -U -u domainuser
C. vdmadmin -U: domainuser
D. vdmadmin -User domainuser
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: VCP510PSE
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 - Data Center Virtualization PSE)
Questions et réponses: 318 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning
indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for
memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

VMware   VCP510PSE   VCP510PSE   VCP510PSE examen
Explanation:
The Memory Resources panel lets you allocate memory resources for a virtual machine and specify
reservations, limits, and shares. Symbolic values Low, Normal, High, and Custom are compared to
the sum of all shares of all virtual machines on the server and, on an ESX host, the service console.
By decreasing the memory share of a particular system, it receives less memory out of the total
available memory.

NO.2 An administrator selects the Profile Compliance tab of a vSphere cluster, then selects Check
Compliance Now. Which features requirements are not checked by this?
A. vMotion
B. Fault Tolerance
C. DRS
D. Host Profiles
Answer: D

VMware examen   certification VCP510PSE   VCP510PSE
10. An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp. Which three options are
available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

certification VMware   VCP510PSE   VCP510PSE examen
11. An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine
and finds that the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be
protected? (Choose two.)
A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual
machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

VMware   VCP510PSE   certification VCP510PSE
12. Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides
linked-clone technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

VMware   VCP510PSE   certification VCP510PSE   VCP510PSE
Explanation:
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-View-4-Composer-DS-EN.pdf (page 1, last
paragraph)
13. An administrator is working to update the hosts and virtual machines in a vSphere 5.x
deployment using Update Manager Baselines.
Other than host patches, which three items require a separate procedure or process to update?
(Choose three.)
A. Operating system patches
B. Virtual Appliance updates
C. Virtual Machine Virtual Hardware upgrades
D. VMware Tools on machines without VMware Tools already installed
E. Application patches within the virtual machine
Answer: A,D,E

VMware examen   VCP510PSE   VCP510PSE examen
14. An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA).
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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Explanation:
Understanding Storage Capabilities
A storage capability outlines the quality of service that a storage system can deliver.
It is a guarantee that the storage system can provide a specific set of characteristics for capacity,
performance, availability, redundancy, and so on.
If a storage system uses Storage APIs - Storage Awareness, it informs vCenter Server that it can
guarantee a specific set of storage features by presenting them as a storage capability. vCenter
Server recognizes the capability and adds it to the list of storage capabilities in the Manage Storage
Capabilities dialog box. Such storage capabilities are system-defined. vCenter Server assigns the
system-defined storage capability to each datastore that you create from that storage system.
NOTE:
Because multiple system capabilities for a datastore are not supported, a datastore that spans
several extents assumes the system capability of only one of its extents.
You can create user-defined storage capabilities and associate them with datastores.
You should associate the same user-defined capability with datastores that guarantee the same
level of storage capabilities. You can associate a user-defined capability with a datastore that already
has a system-defined capability. A datastore can have only one system-defined and only one
userdefined capability at a time.
15. An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk.
Management has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on
demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of
the virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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16. Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on
the datastore alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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Explanation:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externa
lId=1020651
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/topic/com.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc_50/GUID38F
95285-DB4F-462F-AFD7-0F4D812B085F.html
17. An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible
de-duplication store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

VMware examen   certification VCP510PSE   VCP510PSE   certification VCP510PSE
18. Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion
Compatibility (EVC) is used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

VMware examen   VCP510PSE   VCP510PSE   VCP510PSE
19. What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots? (Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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20. An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service. What three options
are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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21. An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update.
After confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault Tolerance on the virtual machine
and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose
two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk"
extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

VMware   VCP510PSE examen   VCP510PSE   VCP510PSE examen
22. An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://www.virtualizationadmin.com/articles-tutorials/vmware-esx-and-vspherearticles/vmotion-dr
s-high-availability/enhanced-vmotion-compatibility-primer.html (8th para)
23. Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using
Storage vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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24. An administrator is using Update Manager 5.x to update virtual appliances in a vSphere
environment. The environment is using the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA).
What would cause the remediation to fail?
A. Updating of the appliance can only be done if the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) has
been put into Maintenance Mode.
B. Remediation must be configured on the Appliance Administration page before use.
C. Remediation of the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) with Update Manager is not
supported.
D. Remediation requires the hosts to be connected to vCenter using an IPv4 address.
Answer: C

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25. ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are
running a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have
been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual
machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on
the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from
this template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

VMware   VCP510PSE examen   VCP510PSE examen   VCP510PSE   VCP510PSE
Explanation:
If you make reservations for your virtual machine's that are equal to the amount of RAM assigned to
them, swapping and page sharing does not occur.
You can over commit pretty heavily if you are comfortable with poorer performance.
If you do not set reservations, ESX host creates a .vswp file equal to the difference between the
amount of physical memory assigned to the virtual machine and the reservation it has.
By default, memory reservations are set to 0. If you have a virtual machine with 2GB of memory
without a reservation, it creates a 2GB .vswp file when it is powered on.
The virtual machine starts using the .vswp file if the server is out of physical RAM. If you set a 1GB
reservation, it creates a 1GB .vswp file.
The .vswp files are what allows for memory overcommitment.

NO.3 An administrator has recently upgraded their Update Manager infrastructure to vSphere 5.x.
Several hosts and virtual machines have not been upgraded yet.
Which vSphere component when upgraded will have the least impact to the existing environment?
A. Virtual Machine Hardware
B. ESX Hosts
C. VMFS datastores
D. VMware Tools
Answer: D

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NO.4 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a
performance benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose
two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual
machine. The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host
containing the virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator is troubleshooting an ESXi 5.x host and needs to export diagnostic
information. The host is currently managed by a vCenter Server instance.
Which two ways can the information be gathered using the vSphere Client? (Choose two.)
A. Select Home. Under Administration, click System Logs and click the Export System Logs button.
Select the affected ESXi host. Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.
B. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Right-click the host and select Export
Diagnostic Data. Select a location and click OK.
C. Log in to the ESXi host locally, Select Export System Logs.
D. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Select File, Export and Export System Logs.
Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 An ESXi 5.x host displays a warning icon in the vSphere console and its summary page lists a
configuration issue "SSH for the host has been enabled." What are two ways to clear this warning?
(Choose two.)
A. Using the Security Profile pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
B. Using the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI)
C. Using the Advanced Settings pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
D. Using the Networking pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
Answer: A,B

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