2014年3月31日星期一

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Code d'Examen: S90-02A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Technology Concepts)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are associated with the functionality provided by a typical enterprise service
bus?
A. reliable message delivery
B. intermediate message routing
C. temporary storage of messages in queues
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Data model transformation is a core service function that can be performed by proven technologies
that have been around for years. Therefore, it is recommended that you look for opportunities to apply this
technology wherever possible, especially in larger, more complex service compositions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 I would like to extend my WSDL definition to include a programmatically consumable statement that
communicates that upon receiving a message the service will add an entry to an event log. Which
technology should I use?
A. Mashup
B. XSLT
C. REST
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The WS-I is an industry standards organization that provides basic profiles to help foster
interoperability among solutions based on XML and Web services industry standards.
B. OASIS is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including WS-BPEL and UDDI.
C. The W3C is a standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including SOAP, WSDL, and WS-Addressing.
D. The OAS-C is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important
technology specifications, including WS-Security and XML Schema.
Answer: D

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NO.5 XML can be used to structure data passed between REST services, but REST introduces rules that limit
the extent to which XML elements and attributes can be nested.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 The XML language is expressed through the use of:
A. elements or tags
B. databases or repositories
C. services or components
D. service compositions or orchestrations
Answer: A

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NO.7 WS-Addressing is most commonly associated with __________________ functionality.
A. process management
B. policy enforcement
C. message routing
D. choreography
Answer: C

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NO.8 A SOAP message is an XML document that is comprised of a set of pre-defined parts. Which of the
following are parts that can be found in a SOAP message?
A. Envelope
B. Body
C. Header
D. Footer
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 XML schemas are comparable to database records. Therefore, XML documents that are based on
XML schemas are comparable to database data models.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is true?
A. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services
using different data models (that represent the same business document) to communicate with each
other.
B. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services
using different communication protocols to communicate with each other.
C. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services to
communicate even though they use different communication protocols and different data models (that
represent the same business document).
D. All of these statements are true.
Answer: D

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NO.11 When two compatible SOAP-based Web services need to exchange an XML document that is
compliant with the XML schema shared by both services, then:
A. A data model transformation technology, such as XSLT, must be used to enable the data exchange.
B. A new XML schema must be created to overcome the disparity between how each service defines the
data model for the XML document.
C. A WS-Policy definition must be created to establish rules that address any differences in the XML
document exchange.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A __________________ establishes a common access point generally based on HTTP methods used
by __________________.
A. WSDL definition, SOAP-based Web service
B. uniform contract, REST services
C. XML schemas, components
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs within the underlying service logic.
B. Service activities represent design-time message exchanges that are established between
SOAP-based Web services and defined as part of the operation definition within the WSDL definition.
C. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs between services.
D. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs between complex and simple XML Schema
types.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Identify what is wrong with the following statement: "I have a single Calculator component that provides
basic math functions. I'm exposing this component as a component-based service for internal service
consumers that are also component-based. I'm exposing this component as a SOAP-based Web service
for internal and external service consumers that support SOAP messaging. I'm also exposing this
component as a REST service for external service consumers that prefer to access its functions via HTTP
methods. I'm also exposing this component as a service agent for service consumers that support explicit
invocation via a service contract."
A. A single component cannot be exposed as a component-based service, a SOAP-based Web service
and a REST service at the same time.
B. SOAP-based Web service consumer programs cannot be both internally and externally located.
C. The uniform contract required by REST services does not support the use of HTTP methods.
D. Service agents are event-driven and are therefore not explicitly invoked via a service contract.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A SOAP-based Web service is required to transmit an XML-based invoice document to a REST
service. However, the SOAP-based Web service is designed to represent invoice data using an XML
schema that is different from the XML schema used within the REST service. How can the disparity
between the XML schemas, used by these two services, be overcome so that they can exchange the
invoice document?
A. A layer of data format transformation logic needs to be introduced based on mashup technologies,
such as DTD and WS-Transform.
B. A layer of protocol transformation logic needs to be introduced based on Web technologies, such as
HTTP and FTP.
C. A layer of data model transformation logic needs to be introduced, based on XML technologies, such
as XSLT.
D. There is no technique or technology for overcoming differences between XML schemas.
Answer: C

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NO.16 When designing REST services within a given domain, you establish __________________ that are
represented by unique identifiers, usually in the format of __________________.
A. resources, HTTPs/HTTPSs
B. mashups, HTTPs/HTTPSs
C. resources, URLs/URIs
D. mashups, URLs/URIs
Answer: C

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NO.17 If Service B is invoked by Service A and then Service B invokes Service C and all of this happens as
part of the same service activity, then Service B would be considered:
A. an intermediary
B. a service agent
C. an ultimate receiver
D. an initial sender
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes reliability levels associated with databases required to persist
state data.
B. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes the issuance and delivery of positive and negative
acknowledgement messages.
C. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes SOAP headers related to atomic transactions with rollback
features.
D. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes the expression of service composition logic, but only for
SOAP-based Web services.
Answer: B

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NO.19 SOAP-based Web services can be designed for use within traditional RPC-style distributed solutions
or for use in service-oriented solutions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Individual service contracts do not need to be published for SOAP-based Web services. Instead, they
use a uniform contract.
B. Individual service contracts do not need to be published for REST services. Instead, they use a
common uniform contract.
C. Components provide published contracts, but when building services as components, components
must use a uniform contract instead.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: S90-19A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Advanced SOA Security)
Questions et réponses: 83 Q&As

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NO.1 Service A has recently been the victim of XPath injection attacks. Messages sent between Service A
and Service C have traditionally been protected via transport-layer security. A redesign of the service
composition architecture introduces Service B, which is positioned as an intermediary service between
Service A and Service C. The Message Screening pattern was applied to the design of Service B. As part
of the new service composition architecture, transport-layer security is replaced with message-layer
security for all services, but Service A and Service C continue to share the same encryption key. After the
new service composition goes live, Service A continues to be subjected to XPath injection attacks. What
is the reason for this?
A. The message screening logic can only work for Service C. Therefore, Service A is not protected.
B. Because message-layer security is being used, it is not possible for the message screening logic in
Service B to inspect messages without having the encryption key that is shared by Service A and Service
C.
C. XPath injection attacks are not prevented by message screening logic or message-layer security.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When designing XML schemas to avoid data-centric threats, which of the following are valid
considerations?
A. The maxOccurs attribute needs to be specified using a restrictive value.
B. The <xsd:any> element needs to be avoided.
C. The <xsd:restriction> element can be used to create more restrictive user-defined simple types.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 The use of session keys and symmetric cryptography results in:
A. Increased performance degradation
B. Increased reliability degradation
C. Reduced message sizes
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following types of attack always affect the availability of a service?
A. Exception generation attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. XPath injection attack
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.5 An alternative to using a ___________ is to use a __________.
A. Public key, private key
B. Digital signature, symmetric key
C. Public key, key agreement security session
D. Digital signature, asymmetric key
Answer: C

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NO.6 Service A's logic has been implemented using managed code. An attacker sends an XML bomb to
Service A. As a result, Service A's memory consumption started increasing at an alarming rate and then
decreased back to normal. The service was not affected by this attack and quickly recovered. Which of
the following attacks were potentially avoided?
A. XML parser attack
B. Buffer overrun attack
C. Insufficient authorization attack
D. Denial of service
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which of the following can directly contribute to making a service composition architecture more
vulnerable to attacks?
A. Reliance on intermediaries
B. Reliance on transport-layer security
C. Reliance on open networks
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 The application of the Service Loose Coupling principle does not relate to the use of security policies
as part of service contracts.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.9 The Trusted Subsystem pattern is applied to a service that provides access to a database. Select the
answer that best explains why this service is still at risk of being subjected to an insufficient authorization
attack.
A. Attackers can steal confidential data by monitoring the network traffic that occurs between the service
and the database.
B. Because the Service Perimeter Guard pattern was also not applied, the database is not protected by a
firewall.
C. If an attacker gains access to the security credentials used by the service to access the database, the
attacker can access the database directly.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.10 How can the use of pre-compiled XPath expressions help avoid attacks?
A. Pre-compiled XPath expressions execute faster and therefore help avoid denial of service attacks.
B. Pre-compiled XPath expressions reduce the chance of missing escape characters, which helps avoid
XPath injection attacks
C. Pre-compiled XPath expressions contain no white space, which helps avoid buffer overrun attacks
D. They can't because XPath expressions cannot be pre-compiled
Answer: B

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NO.11 The Service Perimeter Guard pattern has been applied to help avoid denial of service attacks for a
service inventory. As a result, services within the service inventory are only accessible via a perimeter
service However, denial of service attacks continue to succeed and services within the service inventory
become unavailable to external service consumers. What is the likely cause of this?
A. The application of the Service Perimeter Guard pattern needs to be combined with the application of
the Message Screening pattern in order to mitigate denial of service attacks.
B. The perimeter service itself is the victim of denial of service attacks. As a result, none of the services
inside the service inventory can be accessed by external service consumers.
C. The Trusted Subsystem pattern should have been applied so that each service has a dedicated trusted
subsystem.
D. The Service Perimeter Guard pattern does not help avoid denial of service attacks.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Security policies defined using WS-SecurityPolicy can be used to convey which of the following
requirements to a service consumer?
A. Whether transport-layer or message-layer security needs to be used
B. The encryption type that needs to be used for transport-layer security
C. The algorithms that need to be used for cryptographic operations
D. The type of security token that must be used
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 ___________ is an industry standard that describes mechanisms for issuing, validating, renewing and
cancelling security tokens.
A. WS-Security
B. WS-Trust
C. WS-SecureConversation
D. WS-SecurityPolicy
Answer: B

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NO.14 Service A needs to be designed so that it supports message integrity and so that only part of the
messages exchanged by the service are encrypted. You are asked to create the security policy for this
service. What type of policy assertions should you use?
A. Token assertions
B. Protection assertions
C. Security binding assertions
D. Service A's security requirements cannot be expressed in a policy
Answer: B

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NO.15 The use of XML schemas for data validation helps avoid several types of data-centric threats.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: L50-502
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Solutions Architect)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 You are deploying ESX servers with SVM. You have followed the recommended best practice and
have designed your front-end SAN to have redundant fabrics and allowed for both HBA initiator ports to
see both DPMs. You have created SVM volumes and have presented them to your ESX servers. After
performing an HBA rescan from an ESX server, how many paths should be available to each LUN?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which storage arrays can be migrated under SVM 5 control.?
A. SAS storage array
B. iSCSI storage array
C. FC storage array
D. Infiniband storage array
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your customer would like to consolidate multiple storage arrays which are currently under-utilized. The
SAN is not currently managed by SVM. The customer desires the minimal impact to their applications.
Which two statements describe the process to consolidate the arrays under SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Import existing LUNs into SVM pools.
B. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array.
C. Use asynchronous mirror to move the volumes to the desired array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array and remove SVM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 A customer has an environment that includes existing VMware disks that must be imported into SVM.
VMware marks a signature on the volumes which identifies the controller WWNN and LUN ID. Which
statement describes what you need to take into account when migrating the VMware disks under SVM
control?
A. VMware will not resignature automatically.
B. VMware will present the same LUN ID after importing.
C. VMware will modify the DPM WWNN to match the array WWNN.
D. VMware resignaturing must be set correctly.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have a disaster recovery scenario where newly created SVM Views will be presented to an ESX
server or ESX cluster at a secondary site. To avoid importing the views as new volumes, which ESX
advanced setting should be enabled?
A. port retry
B. resignature
C. device reset
D. LUN reset
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer is using SVM to provide five volumes to a Windows 2008 server. These volumes have
been converted to dynamic disks and striped using the OS. Which consideration should be met if the
customer would like to use PiTs and views to access this data from another server?
A. The data cannot be accessed from another host.
B. multiMigrate should be used to migrate the data to a single volume.
C. A consistency group should be defined for the five volumes.
D. The standard agent must be used to access the view.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your customer has recently begun using hourly PiTs for rapid application recovery. The desire is to
implement a data retention plan where each hourly PiT is kept on disk until 8:00 PM. Four weeks?worth
the customer would like to keep a daily snapshot copy of the data for seven days. Also the customer
wants to keep four weeks worth of weekly views on a secondary, low cost array. The solution should
minimize disk utilization on the primary array. Which three tasks would you implement to accomplish this
goal? (Choose three.)
A. Create a multiCopy of the application data and keep seven copies.
B. Create a View on the most recent PiT each night at 8:00 PM and retain for seven days.
C. Create a multiCopy of the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
D. Purge PiTs on the source volume at 8:00 PM to keep seven PiTs.
E. Use multiMigrate to move the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 A customer has an AIX high availability cluster multiprocessing (HACMP) environment and would like to
use SVM to provide additional storage to the cluster. Which consideration must be met to access the new
volumes?
A. The AIX light agent must be installed on all nodes.
B. The new volumes must be imported into a volume group.
C. The LSI failover driver must be installed on all nodes.
D. The MPIO driver must be disabled on all nodes.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are implementing zoning for an SVM 5 environment. Which rule should you observe when zoning
servers with DPMs?
A. There should be no more than four paths per DPM to any one server.
B. There should be no more than two paths per DPM to any one server.
C. All servers and DPM front-end ports should reside in the same zone.
D. The servers should be zoned directly with the storage controllers.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A retailer with a SQL database must pull statistics from a production database but would like to do so
without interfering with production work. The statistics are required by three different departments. Which
two methods could be used to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Use multiMigrate on the database volume with one job and assign the destination volume to the three
hosts.
B. Use multiMirror asynchronous on the database volume with three jobs and assign the jobs to the three
hosts.
C. Use multiView on the database volume to create a PiT; create three views for that PiT and assign it to
the three hosts.
D. Use multiCopy on the database volume with three jobs and assign each destination volume to the
three hosts.
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 A financial institution has an Oracle application that is critical to its business. Which three factors will
enable you to assess how to provide high availability and recovery? (Choose three.)
A. application recovery time objective
B. application recovery point objective
C. distance between data centers
D. number of network adapters
E. distance between servers
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 Your customer is looking for a high availability solution for company-critical data with an RPO of 0.
Periodically the customer would like to verify the integrity of replicated data. You configure two SVM
domains on two sites and use synchronous multiMirror between the two sites. What are two methods to
verify the data? (Choose two.)
A. Create a PiT on the synchronous multiMirror group, create a view on the second synchronous mirror
job PiT and assign it to a host.
B. Use multiCopy for one of the synchronous multiMirror jobs and then assign the destination volume to a
host.
C. Create a PiT on the second synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a
host.
D. Create a PiT on the first synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a host.
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 Your customer wants to run backups at any time of the day, using snapshots of production data, leaving
production systems fully online and available during backups. Which SVM application would be used to
achieve their online backup requirement?
A. multiMigrate
B. multiMirror
C. multiView
D. SVM volume management
Answer: C

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NO.14 A customer would like to implement SVM into their current storage environment and has asked you to
provide a detailed overview of both the SVM and DPM architectures. Where would you suggest that they
locate the required information?
A. Host Compatibility Matrix
B. Deployment Guide for SVM 4
C. SVM User Guide
D. Configuration Knowledge Base for SVM 5
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are trying to determine the optimal solution to meet the data recovery needs of a customer. What
will provide your customer with the smallest recovery time objective and array failure protection?
A. asynchronous multiMirror
B. multiView
C. multiCopy
D. synchronous multiMirror
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified Penetration Tester)
Questions et réponses: 384 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true about the Digest Authentication scheme?
A. In this authentication scheme, the username and password are passed with every request, not
just when the user first types them.
B. A valid response from the client contains a checksum of the username, the password, the given
random value, the HTTP method, and the requested URL.
C. The password is sent over the network in clear text format.
D. It uses the base64 encoding encryption scheme.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following are the scanning methods used in penetration testing?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Vulnerability
B. Port
C. Network
D. Services
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 An executive in your company reports odd behavior on her PDA. After investigation you
discover that a trusted device is actually copying data off the PDA. The executive tells you that the
behavior started shortly after accepting an e-business card from an unknown person. What type of
attack is this?
A. Session Hijacking
B. PDA Hijacking
C. Privilege Escalation
D. Bluesnarfing
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following encryption modes are possible in WEP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. No encryption
B. 256 bit encryption
C. 128 bit encryption
D. 40 bit encryption
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 Which of the following tools is used to verify the network structure packets and confirm that
the packets are constructed according to specification?
A. EtherApe
B. Snort decoder
C. AirSnort
D. snort_inline
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following options holds the strongest password?
A. california
B. $#164aviD

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Nom d'Examen: IIBA (Cetified business analysis professional (CBAP) appliaction)
Questions et réponses: 305 Q&As

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NO.1 The business analysis approach generally defines all of the following attributes except for which one?
A. Requirements for solutions acceptance
B. Deliverables
C. Team roles
D. Analysis technique
Answer: A

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NO.2 Gary is the business analyst for his organization and he is preparing a presentation about the
requirements for a large software development project. Before Gary makes the presentation what should
he do as part of his preparation for the presentation?
A. Determine an appropriate format for the presentation.
B. Confirm that he has the authority to host the presentation.
C. Confirm that the stakeholders have signed off on the requirements.
D. Hire a scribe to keep the minutes of the meeting.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are creating the solution scope for an identified problem in your organization. You are working with
several stakeholders during this process including the domain subject matter expert, the implementation
subject matter expert, the project manager, and the sponsor. Which of these stakeholders will be
responsible for writing the project scope?
A. Domain subject matter expert
B. Business analyst
C. Project manager
D. Sponsor
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management has asked that you create a model of
the requirements so the stakeholders can better understand the requirements and the project as a whole.
Which of the following statements best describes a model?
A. Models are slices of the project solution.
B. Models simplify the requirements for common stakeholders.
C. Models are statistics for the return on investment, time saved, and other mathematics.
D. Models abstract and simplify reality.
Answer: D

IIBA   CBAP   CBAP

NO.5 What plan will describe the stakeholder groups, communication needs, and the level of formality that is
appropriate for the requirements?
A. Requirements management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Scope management plan
D. Business analysis communication plan
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are the business analyst for your organization. Gary and Janet, two key stakeholders in the project,
are in disagreement over a requirement for the type of software to be installed on the server your solution
calls for. What must happen in this instance before formal approval can be offered?
A. The conflict will need to be resolved through research, resolution, or through a third-party mediation.
B. Gary and Janet will need to determine who has seniority in the company to determine which
requirement takes precedence.
C. The conflict will need to be removed from the solution scope until Gary and Janet come to a solution.
D. The business analyst will need to make a decision on which requirement is most appropriate.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Nancy has asked you to trace a particular requirement for her. What does 'to trace a requirement'
mean?
A. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links risk,
cost, quality, and scope elements to stakeholder and solution requirements to other artifacts created by
the team and to solution components.
B. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links
business requirements to stakeholder and solution requirements to other artifacts created by the team
and to solution components.
C. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links
business requirements to components in the project's work breakdown structure.
D. Tracing a requirement means to track a requirements from its first identification all the way to its
completion to see what issues, risks, costs, quality, and defects have surrounded the requirement
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are the business analyst for a smaller project where there are few requirements. Management
would still like you to create a method to trace the few requirements for this project. What type of matrix
would be best in this instance?
A. Roles and responsibility matrix
B. RACI matrix
C. Coverage matrix
D. Requirements trace matrix
Answer: C

IIBA   certification CBAP   CBAP   CBAP

NO.9 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management has asked that you create a method to
store the project requirements including those under development, under review, and the requirements
which have been approved. What is management asking you to create?
A. A change management system
B. A repository
C. A project scope statement
D. A requirements register
Answer: B

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NO.10 What type of a business analysis approach focuses on the rapid delivery of business value in short
iterations?
A. Risk-driven
B. Change-driven
C. Risk-laden
D. Profit-driven
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are the business analyst for your organization and have many solutions available to an identified
problem. You would like a way to quickly and fairly determine which solution is the best choice for your
organization. Which of the following approaches would allow you to determine the top-rated solutions for
your organization?
A. Scoring system
B. Acceptance and evaluation criteria
C. Vendor assessment
D. Voting system
Answer: A

IIBA   CBAP   CBAP   CBAP

NO.12 One of the processes within requirements analysis is to prioritize requirements. As a business analyst
why would you ever want to prioritize requirements?
A. You may need to determine the cost of each requirement.
B. You may need to determine the schedule for each requirement.
C. You may need to determine which requirements are most critical so the analysis and
implementation efforts focus on the most critical requirements.
D. You may need to determine which requirements are most critical so additional risk analysis can be
completed on those requirements.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What business analysis element tries to identify as many potential options as possible to meet the
business objectives and fill identified gaps in capabilities?
A. Ranking of approaches
B. Decision analysis
C. Documentation of assumptions and constraints
D. Alternative generation
Answer: D

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NO.14 When an organization is using a change-driven approach to business analysis, how are
communications managed?
A. Communications in a change-driven approach to business analysis focus more on the
frequency of communication.
B. Communications in a change-driven approach typically use face-to-face channels.
C. Communications in a change-driven approach focus more on formal communications.
D. Communications in a change-driven approach are all ad hoc.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management wants you to prioritize the identified
requirements by the requirements that have the highest likelihood of success. Why would management
want you to prioritize the requirements with this factor even though some of the requirements may be
difficult to implement?
A. They want a fast return on investment.
B. They want to show early success in the implementation to the project stakeholders.
C. They don't understand the requirements.
D. They want to avoid penalties or fines due to a pending law.
Answer: B

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NO.16 You have identified a task in your task list that cannot be completed until the inspector for the project
signs off on the initial deliverables. The inspector's signoff on the initial deliverables is called what?
A. Assumption
B. Dependency
C. Milestone
D. Constraint
Answer: B

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NO.17 When do change requests generally increase in a project?
A. During the project's launch.
B. Towards the beginning of the project.
C. During the project scope management processes.
D. Towards the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the term used to describe the cost of the solution after the solution has been implemented in
production by a vendor?
A. Total ownership costing
B. Lifecycle maintenance fees
C. Sustainability fees
D. Total cost of ownership
Answer: D

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NO.19 Fred's organization is using a plan-driven approach for the business analysis deliverables. In this
approach how will the requirements be captured?
A. Fred will use the appropriate documentation at the discretion of the business analysis team .
B. Fred will use the project management information system.
C. Fred will use whatever business analysis forms are most appropriate.
D. Fred will use standardized templates.
Answer: D

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NO.20 What part of defining the business needs process will evaluate the ends that the organization is
seeking to achieve?
A. Business goals and objectives
B. Alternative identification
C. Solution assessment
D. Requirements
Answer: A

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NO.21 You are the business analyst for your organization and are creating the solution scope definition.
Which of the following should be included in the solution scope definition?
A. Business case
B. Technical dependencies
C. Elicitation techniques
D. Organization readiness assessment
Answer: B

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NO.22 Ben is the business analyst for his organization. Ben is currently working on a solution to improve a
laser printer. He has taken the laser printer apart, identified each component, and documented each
component's purpose. What type of requirements organization is Ben doing in this scenario?
A. Process modeling
B. Data modeling
C. Functional decomposition
D. Scope modeling
Answer: C

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NO.23 All of the following stakeholders participate in the prioritization of requirements except for which one?
A. Implementation subject matter expert
B. Project team
C. Domain subject matter expert
D. Project manager
Answer: B

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NO.24 You are the business analyst for your organization and are working with Jennifer to conduct
stakeholder analysis. You would like to create a RACI chart to help with the roles of the people involved in
the stakeholder analysis process. Jennifer is not familiar with this chart and asks what does RACI mean.
Which one of the following best describes the RACI chart in the conduct stakeholder analysis process?
A. It's a matrix that uses the Responsible, Accountable, Consult, and Inform tasks as part of the
stakeholder analysis process.
B. It's a role and responsibility chart that identifies when stakeholders are needed in the business analyst
duties.
C. It's a matrix that uses Role, Action, Consult, and Inform as part of the conduct stakeholder analysis
process.
D. It's a rule that the business analyst can use to identify all of the needed stakeholders: roles, actions,
communications, and interest.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Enterprise analysis creates just five outputs. Which one of the following is an output of the enterprise
analysis tasks.?
A. Assumptions and constraints
B. Stakeholder concerns
C. Solution performance assessment
D. Solution approach
Answer: D

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NO.26 Wanda is the business analyst for her organization and she is currently working on the specify and
model requirements process. One of the elements of this process is the documentation of the textual
requirements. Wanda must describe the capabilities of the solution, any conditions that must exist for the
requirements to operate, and what third component of the textual requirement?
A. Any constraints that may prevent the solution from fulfilling the requirement
B. Write in the active voice
C. Describe a situation or problem
D. Express only one requirement at a time
Answer: A

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NO.27 You are the business analyst for your organization and working with Tim to identify the
assumptions within the business solution. Which one of the following is an assumption?
A. The vendor believes the hardware should arrive by December 1
B. The software must be compatible with Windows Vista
C. The software must cost less than $99 per license
D. The hardware must costs less than $450 per unit.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Sally is the business analyst for her organization. Sally and her business analysis team is currently
using a business analysis approach to determine what the competition of her organization is offering
prospective clients. She is trying to identify solutions to increase revenue by remaining competitive with
the competition. What business analysis approach is Sally and her business analysis team using?
A. Business rules analysis
B. Functional decomposition
C. Focus groups
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D

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NO.29 Paul is the business analyst for his organization. He is examining a single solution to determine if the
solution he and his team have identified carries enough business value to justify its implementation. What
business analysis process is Paul performing in this scenario?
A. Define transition requirements
B. Assess proposed solution
C. Assess organizational readiness
D. Allocate requirements
Answer: B

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NO.30 You are working with Terry on the conduct stakeholder analysis task as part of the business analysis
duties in your company. Terry wants to know why it's so important to identify stakeholders so early in the
business analysis duties. Which one of the following statements best addresses the need to identify the
stakeholders early on in the business analysis duties?
A. It's important to identify the stakeholders so the business analyst knows who to report to.
B. It's important to identify the stakeholders so the business analyst knows who to bill for the project.
C. It's important to identify the stakeholder so the business analyst can help ensure the timely delivery of
the requirements deliverables.
D. It's important to identify the stakeholders so the stakeholders know who the business analyst is.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: AX0-100
Nom d'Examen: Axis (Axis Network Video Exam)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in
popularity because
A. There is more energy in DC.
B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.
C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.
D. There is less risk for surge with DC.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video
at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Media Control
Answer: B

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NO.3 In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company is looking for a dome designed to withstand vibrations inherent to transportation. Which of
the following cameras should be recommended?
A. AXIS P3344-VE
B. AXIS M3014
C. AXIS M3114-R
D. AXIS P1344
Answer: C

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NO.5 When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?
A. Understand which camera models to use
B. Understand the customer's technical knowledge
C. Understand the customer's goals and requirements
D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which is true regarding the use of a smoked (tinted) dome instead of a clear dome?
A. Decreases color fidelity
B. Decreases field of view
C. Disables infrared capabilities
D. Reduces light sensitivity
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?
A. Noise is increased
B. Frame rate is reduced
C. Light sensitivity is decreased
D. Resolution is reduced
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?
A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be
securely viewed off-site
B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network
traffic
C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users
disconnect cameras to intercept network traffic
D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that
malicious users will intercept it
Answer: D

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NO.9 Axis recommends shielded cables for outdoor installations primarily to ensure
A. Image quality.
B. Surge protection.
C. Life time of cable installations.
D. Conformity with SMPTE standard.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the pictures below?
A. Image contrast
B. White balance
C. Color saturation
D. Image brightness
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely
setting to address the blurring?
A. Gain level
B. Brightness
C. Backlight compensation
D. Shutter speed
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)
A. AXIS M3114-R
B. AXIS P3304-VR
C. AXIS P1344-E
D. AXIS P3344-VE
E. AXIS M1031-W
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between
three predefined positions?
A. Configure the camera's I/O ports to control the preset positions
B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions
C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick
D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions
Answer: B

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NO.14 DRAG DROP
Match the protocol to its default port number. Drag each gray box from the left column to the matching
blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.15 Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact
on recorded video during server maintenance?
A. Local storage at the camera
B. Meta data stream
C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)
D. SNMP
Answer: A

Axis   AX0-100   AX0-100   AX0-100

NO.16 DRAG DROP
Match each function to the correct video surveillance system component. Drag each gray box from the left
column to the matching blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.17 In setting up PTZ control for an Axis encoder, it's very easy to overlook a very important step in the
configuration process. After properly connecting the communication wires to the encoder, the next
recommended step in the setup is:
A. Downloading the correct Device ID from the Axis website
B. Setting the Baud Rate to match the analog PTZ' s
C. Setting the Device ID to match the analog ID
D. Uploading the correct PTZ driver
Answer: D

Axis   AX0-100   AX0-100

NO.18 Which of the following statements are true for H.264? (Choose two)
A. The size of an l-frame depends on the preceding P-frame
B. Increased motion in a scene means increased bit rate
C. Group of Video (GOV) length is directly affected by the sizes of the I- and P-frames
D. A P-frame references preceding and succeeding P-frames
E. Longer GOV length means reduced bit rate
Answer: B,E

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NO.19 What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality.?
A. To protect the camera electronics
B. To protect the camera mechanics
C. To protect the camera lens
D. To protect the camera power
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe ColdFusion 9 ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 101 Q&As

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NO.1 Given the following snippet:
<cfset x=2>
<cfoutput>
#--x# - #x++#
</cfoutput>
What is the output.?
A. 1 - 1
B. 1 - 3
C. 1 - 2
D. -1
Answer: A

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NO.2 A page in your application is accessed at http://localhost/scope.cfm?init=false.
In which variable scope is the init variable available?
A. Attributes
B. Application
C. URL
D. Form
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement about a regular expression is true?
A. It is a term used for common design patterns.
B. It is a method of discussing design with clients.
C. It allows developers to discuss code syntax.
D. It is a method of searching strings.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the value of the variable output when the following code executes?
<cfset output = "There is no answer" />
<cfif 1 eq true>
<cfset output = "The answer is one" />
<cfelseif 0 eq true>
<cfset output = "The answer is two" />
<cfelse>
<cfset output = "The answer is three" />
</cfif>
A. "The answer is one"
B. "The answer is two"
C. "The answer is three"
D. "There is no answer"
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which code segment can be used to store an array of structures as a client variable?
A. <cfset client.myarray = "#adata#">
B. <cfset client.myarray = valuelist(adata)>
C. <cfset client.myarray = serializeJSON(adata)>
D. <cfset client.myarray = adata>
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your application has the following query which is invalid:
<cftry>
<cfquery datasource="goodphoto" name="test">
SELECT * FROM ...
</cfquery>
<cfcatch type="any">
</cfcatch>
</cftry>
Which variable contains a string that describes the cause of the error?
A. cfcatch.message
B. cfcatch.type
C. cfcatch.detail
D. cfcatch.errorCode
Answer: C

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NO.7 Given the follow code snippet:
<cfset startTime = CreateDateTime(2009,1,1,0,0,0)>
<cfset endTime = CreateDateTime(2009,1,3,12,0,0)>
<cfset i = 2>
<cfloop from="#startTime#" to="#endTime#" index="i" step="#CreateTimeSpan(1,0,0,0)#">
Hello World! <br />
</cfloop>
How many times does the loop iterate?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Web application development task is most likely to benefit from the use of CFML-based regular
expressions?
A. database queries
B. string parsing
C. image manipulation
D. web services
Answer: B

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NO.9 Given the following code:
<cferror type="validation" template="handler.cfm"/>
<cfform> Enter a value: <cfinput type="text" required="true" name="myinput" validateat="onServer" />
<cfinput type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" />
</cfform>
What happens when the form is submitted and validation rules are broken?
A. The file handler.cfm page is displayed.
B. The ColdFusion default validation error handler page is displayed.
C. The form page is displayed.
D. A runtime error occurs.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You want to display a custom template when an exception occurs in your application.
Which tag should you use to specify the template to be displayed?
A. <cfthrow />
B. <cfcatch />
C. <cferror />
D. <cfexecute />
Answer: C

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NO.11 You want to load a single entity of type ART from your ORM, using the primary key value 5 as a filter.
Which two function signatures can you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. EntityLoadByPK("ART", 5)
B. EntityLoadSingleValue("ART", 5)
C. EntityLoad("ART", 5)
D. EntityLoadByExample("ART", 5)
E. EntityLoad("ART", 5, true)
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 What is the value of the variable b when the following code block executes?
<cfscript> a = 0; b = 1; a = (a)?b:a; if (a) { b = "apple"; }{ b = "pear"; } </cfscript>
A. 1
B. 0
C. apple
D. pear
Answer: D

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NO.13 You want to convert a query column containing numeric data into a comma-delimited list.
Which function should you use?
A. ValueList()
B. ArrayToList()
C. ColumnList()
D. ListAppend()
Answer: A

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NO.14 Given the following code stub:
<cfset obj = {key='Apple',basic=['one','two']} />
Which returns the string "two"?
A. obj.key.basic
B. obj.basic[2]
C. obj.basic[1]
D. obj.basic.2
Answer: B

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NO.15 When should you use the <cfthrow> tag?
A. to consistently handle exceptions in the Application.cfc onError method
B. to throw a message into the JMS message queue for processing
C. to write a diagnostic message to the error.log file
D. to consistently handle all syntax errors throughout your application
Answer: A

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