Juniper meilleur examen JN0-562, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JN0-562
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-SSL) 562 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to configure Network Connect to allow users to connect through a tunnel, connect to hosts on
the same subnet as their local adapter, and shut down any attempt to extend the network boundaries.
How do you proceed?
A. Enable split tunneling.
B. Disable split tunneling.
C. Enable split tunneling with route change monitor.
D. Allow access to local subnet with route change monitor.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two statements about SSL VPNs are true? (Choose two.)
A. SSL VPNs provide better security than IPSEC.
B. SSL VPNs provide a dedicated, point to point connection.
C. SSL VPNs provide high performance for individual connections.
D. SSL VPNs use well-known technologies for secure individual connections.
Answer: CD

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NO.3 What is Cache Cleaner used for?
A. to prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
B. to remove content downloaded during the IVE session
C. to remove Web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. to determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which role-based session option would an administrator configure to allow a user to connect from
different source IP addresses within the same user session?
A. roaming session
B. persistent session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are using RADIUS as your authorization server. Other than username, which two attributes are
available for creating role mapping rules? (Choose two.)
A. Certificate
B. User Attribute
C. RSA Attributes
D. Group Membership
Answer: AB

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NO.6 What is the minimum information that must be configured by an administrator to create a resource
policy? (Choose two.)
A. resource
B. username
C. policy name
D. session timeout
Answer: AC

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NO.7 You create a set of role mapping rules. You select "Merge settings for all assigned roles." The second
role mapping rule has the "Stop processing rules when this rule matches" option selected. A user logs in
that matches the first three rules. What happens?
A. This is not a valid combination. The system displays an error message and does not update the
configuration.
B. The merge settings override the stop processing option. The user matches all three roles and merging
follows the standard merging criteria.
C. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The merge option only
merges the roles of the first two rules following the IVE's built-in permissive merging rules.
D. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The user now just
matches the second rule. The merge option is overridden and the user is given only the privileges defined
by the second role.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are two possible reasons for W-SAM not starting on the client? (Choose two.)
A. Java is disabled in the Sign-in policy.
B. ActiveX autoinstall is disabled in the role.
C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D. The user does not have administrator privileges on the machine.
Answer: CD

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NO.9 Which resource example should you use to define resource access to a UNIX file share?
A. server/user
B. \\server\share
C. tcp://host:443
D. tcp://host:137/users
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement accurately describes Resource Profiles?
A. Resource Profiles are a collection of resources and ACLs.
B. Resource Profiles are where ACLs are setup for resources.
C. Resource Profiles are a collection of resources and their discriptions.
D. Resource Profiles are where the resource, role, and ACL are in one location.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What are two benefits of using SSL? (Choose two.)
A. SSL is supported in all Web browsers.
B. SSL usually requires no client-side configuration.
C. The SSL client is smaller than most IPSec clients, with half the options to configure than that of an
IPSec client.
D. SSL outperforms IPSec on every level because it operates at the network layer rather than the
application layer.
Answer: AB

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NO.12 Which two Terminal Services clients can be delivered automatically from the IVE to users? (Choose
two.)
A. Citrix ICA
B. Tera Term
C. SecureCRT
D. Windows Terminal Service
Answer: AD

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NO.13 What does a sign-in policy map users to when browsing a specified URL?
A. A list of possible user roles.
B. Specific resources as stated in resource policies.
C. The URL presents one or more authentication realms to the user for authentication.
D. The login is passed to an authentication server for verification, and an authorization server for user
attribute information.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Where is the IVE typically deployed in the network?
A. behind the Internet firewall
B. internally with all clients directly cabled to the IVE
C. both interfaces on the outside of the Internet firewall
D. parallel to the Internet firewall with one interface on the outside and one on the inside
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which User Role session option provides you with the capability to cache basic authentication
information so users are not challenged repeatedly for the same credentials?
A. roaming session
B. persistent session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which two Web Resource Policy features provide you with the capability to configure the IVE to work
with corporate Proxy Servers? (Choose two.)
A. Web Proxy Policies
B. Web Proxy Servers
C. Web Cache Policies
D. Web Passthrough Proxy
Answer: AB

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NO.17 What are two reasons for using Network Connect? (Choose two.)
A. When the ability to disable split tunneling is required.
B. When the client will need to redirect traffic based on process name.
C. When the client will use applications with server-initiated connections.
D. When the client will not have administrator privileges on their machines.
Answer: AC

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NO.18 Which three authentication servers are included with a baseline license? (Choose three.)
A. NIS
B. ACE
C. SAML
D. LDAP
E. SiteMinder
Answer: ABD

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NO.19 Resource Profiles support creating policies for which two technologies? (Choose two.)
A. secure meeting
B. network connect
C. terminal services
D. Web applications
Answer: CD

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NO.20 When using the J-SAM, where on a client machine would you look to verify that the loopback
addresses are assigned correctly?
A. HOSTS file
B. ARP cache
C. LMHOSTS file
D. local route table
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: JN0-331
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (SEC,Specialist(JNCIS-SEC))
Questions et réponses: 131 Q&As

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NO.1 Users can define policy to control traffic flow between which two components? (Choose two.)
A. from a zone to the device itself
B. from a zone to the same zone
C. from a zone to a different zone
D. from one interface to another interface
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Which two statements are true regarding proxy ARP? (Choose two.)
A. Proxy ARP is enabled by default.
B. Proxy ARP is not enabled by default.
C. JUNOS security devices can forward ARP requests to a remote device when proxy ARP is enabled.
D. JUNOS security devices can reply to ARP requests intended for a remote device when proxy ARP is
enabled.
Answer: BD

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NO.3 What is the default session timeout for UDP sessions?
A. 30 seconds
B. 1 minute
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: C

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NO.4 By default, which condition would cause a session to be removed from the session table?
A. Route entry for the session changed.
B. Security policy for the session changed.
C. The ARP table entry for the source IP address timed out.
D. No traffic matched the session during the timeout period.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two statements about JUNOS Software packet handling are correct? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software applies service ALGs only for the first packet of a flow.
B. JUNOS Software uses fast-path processing only for the first packet of a flow.
C. JUNOS Software performs route and policy lookup only for the first packet of a flow.
D. JUNOS Software applies SCREEN options for both first and consecutive packets of a flow.
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Which three functions are provided by JUNOS Software for security platforms? (Choose three.)
A. VPN establishment
B. stateful ARP lookups
C. Dynamic ARP inspection
D. Network Address Translation
E. inspection of packets at higher levels (Layer 4 and above)
Answer: ADE

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NO.7 In JUNOS Software, which three packet elements can be inspected to determine if a session already
exists? (Choose three.)
A. IP protocol
B. IP time-to-live
C. source and destination IP address
D. source and destination MAC address
E. source and destination TCP/UDP port
Answer: ACE

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NO.8 Which two configurations are valid? (Choose two.)
A. [edit security zones]
user@host# show
security-zone red {
interfaces {
ge-0/0/1.0;
ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
security-zone blue {
interfaces {
ge-0/0/2.0;
ge-0/0/3.102;
}
}
B. [edit security zones]
user@host# show
security-zone red {
interfaces {
ge-0/0/1.0;
ge-0/0/2.0;
}
}
security-zone blue {
interfaces {
ge-0/0/1.0;
ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
C. [edit routing-instances]
user@host# show
red {
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.102;
}
blue {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
}
D. [edit routing-instances]
user@host# show
red {
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
interface ge-0/0/3.102;
}
blue {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
}
Answer: AD

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
[edit schedulers]
user@host# show
scheduler now {
monday all-day;
tuesday exclude;
wednesday {
start-time 07:00:00 stop-time 18:00:00;
}
thursday {
start-time 07:00:00 stop-time 18:00:00;
}
}
[edit security policies from-zone Private to-zone External]
user@host# show
policy allowTransit {
match {
source-address PrivateHosts;
destination-address ExtServers;
application ExtApps;
}
then {
permit {
tunnel {
ipsec-vpn myTunnel;
}
}
}
scheduler-name now;
Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, what are the actions of the security policy?
A. The policy will always permit transit packets and use the IPsec VPN myTunnel.
B. The policy will permit transit packets only on Monday, and use the IPsec VPN Mytunnel.
C. The policy will permit transit packets and use the IPsec VPN myTunnel all day Monday and
Wednesday 7am to 6pm, and Thursday 7am to 6pm.
D. The policy will always permit transit packets, but will only use the IPsec VPN myTunnel all day Monday
and Wednesday 7am to 6pm, and Thursday 7am to 6pm.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Regarding zone types, which statement is true?
A. You cannot assign an interface to a functional zone.
B. You can specifiy a functional zone in a security policy.
C. Security zones must have a scheduler applied.
D. You can use a security zone for traffic destined for the device itself.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two statements describe the difference between JUNOS Software for security platforms and a
traditional router? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software for security platforms supports NAT and PAT; a traditional router does not support
NAT or PAT.
B. JUNOS Software for security platforms secures traffic by default; a traditional router does not secure
traffic by default.
C. JUNOS Software for security platforms allows for session-based forwarding; a traditional router uses
packet-based forwarding.
D. JUNOS Software for security platforms separates broadcast domains; a traditional router does not
separate broadcast domains.
Answer: BC

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NO.12 A traditional router is better suited than a firewall device for which function?
A. VPN establishment
B. packet-based forwarding
C. stateful packet processing
D. Network Address Translation
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two functions of JUNOS Software are handled by the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. NAT
B. OSPF
C. SNMP
D. SCREEN options
Answer: AD

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NO.14 For IKE phase 1 negotiations, when is aggressive mode typically used?
A. when one of the tunnel peers has a dynamic IP address
B. when one of the tunnel peers wants to force main mode to be used
C. when fragmentation of the IKE packet is required between the two peers
D. when one of the tunnel peers wants to specify a different phase 1 proposal
Answer: A

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NO.15 Host A opens a Telnet connection to Host B. Host A then opens another Telnet connection to Host B.
These connections are the only communication between Host A and Host B. The security policy
configuration permits both connections.
How many flows exist between Host A and Host B?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
[edit groups]
user@host# show
node0 {
system {
host-name NODE0;
}
interfaces {
fxp0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
}
node1 {
system {
host-name NODE1;
}
interfaces {
fxp0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.2/24;
}
}
}
}
}
In the exhibit, what is the function of the configuration statements?
A. This section is where you define all chassis clustering configuration.
B. This configuration is required for members of a chassis cluster to talk to each other.
C. You can apply this configuration in the chassis cluster to make configuration easier.
D. This section is where unique node configuration is applied.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Regarding attacks, which statement is correct?
A. Both DoS and propagation attacks exploit and take control of all unprotected network devices.
B. Propagation attacks focus on suspicious packet formation using the DoS SYN-ACK-ACK proxy flood.
C. DoS attacks are directed at the network protection devices, while propagation attacks are directed at
the servers.
D. DoS attacks are exploits in nature, while propagation attacks use trust relationships to take control of
the devices.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What are two components of the JUNOS Software architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Linux kernel
B. routing protocol daemon
C. session-based forwarding module
D. separate routing and security planes
Answer: BC

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NO.19 Which two statements describe the difference between JUNOS Software for security platforms and a
traditional router? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software for security platforms supports NAT and PAT; a traditional router does not support
NAT or PAT.
B. JUNOS Software for security platforms does not forward traffic by default; a traditional router forwards
traffic by default.
C. JUNOS Software for security platforms uses session-based forwarding; a traditional router uses
packet-based forwarding.
D. JUNOS Software for security platforms performs route lookup for every packet; a traditional router
performs route lookup only for the first packet.
Answer: BC

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NO.20 What is the purpose of a zone in JUNOS Software?
A. A zone defines a group of security devices with a common management.
B. A zone defines the geographic region in which the security device is deployed.
C. A zone defines a group of network segments with similar security requirements.
D. A zone defines a group of network segments with similar class-of-service requirements.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: JN0-643
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Enterprise Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-ENT))
Questions et réponses: 201 Q&As

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NO.1 Port authentication falls back to Captive Portal.
In which two scenarios would the port authentication move back to 802.1X? (Choose two.)
A. if any MAC RADIUS request packet is received on the interface and if there are no sessions in
authenticated/authenticating state
B. if Captive Portal is deactivated on the interface
C. if the user gets logged out
D. if the EAP packet is received on the interface and if there are no sessions in
authenticated/authenticating state
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which protocol reachability is advertised by OSPFv2?
A. IPv4
B. IPv5
C. IPv6
D. ISO
Answer: A

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NO.3 You must configure your access switch with more than 3000 VLANs and you want the ability
to load-balance across them.
Which spanning-tree approach has the least impact on control-plane performance?
A. Configure your access switch with a load-balancing policy and apply it under [edit protocols rstp].
B. Configure your access switch for Rapid-PVST+.
C. Configure your access switch for MSTP , incorporating the use of MSTIs.
D. Configure your access switch for both VSTP and RSTP .
Answer: C

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NO.4 During the BGP route-resolution process, the Junos OS must calculate the appropriate
next-hop based on the BGP protocol next-hop attribute.
Which two routing tables are checked during this process in a default Junos configuration? (Choose
two.)
A. inet.0
B. inet.1
C. inet.2
D. inet.3
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 A network routes IPv4 traffic only. You want to add IPv6 to the network, but you must use a
single IGP for both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic.
Which protocol meets this requirement?
A. OSPFv2
B. BGPv4
C. ES-ISv1
D. OSPFv3
Answer: D

certification Juniper   JN0-643   JN0-643

NO.6 You are implementing MSTP in your network.
Which three values must match on all switches within the MST region? (Choose three)
A. Context identifier
B. Region name
C. VLANs
D. Revision
E. Configuration manifest
Answer: B,C,D

Juniper   JN0-643   certification JN0-643   JN0-643 examen   JN0-643 examen

NO.7 You have implemented 802.1X authentication in your Layer 2 network and you have only a
single RADIUS server. You are asked to ensure that if the RADIUS server becomes unreachable or
fails, users connected to the ge-0/ 0/ 0 port are still able to reach the Internet using a predefined
guest VLAN.
Which command allows this access?
A. [edit]
user@switch# set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/ 0/ 0.0 radius-fail vlan guest
B. [edit]
user@switch# set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/ 0/ 0.0 server-fail vlan-name guest
C. [edit]
user@switch# set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/ 0/ 0.0 auth-fail assign-vlan guest
D. [edit]
user@switch# set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/ 0/ 0.0 radius-fail assign guest
Answer: B

Juniper   JN0-643   certification JN0-643   JN0-643   certification JN0-643

NO.8 A user complains about connectivity problems from their IP address (10.1.1.87) to a server
(10.65.1.100).
Which Junos command can help verify connectivity in the network?
A. mroute
B. traceoptions
C. ping
D. clear bgp neighbor
Answer: C

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NO.9 Voice traffic is coming in on UDP port 17689. This traffic must be classified into the
expedited-forwarding forwarding class.
Which type of classifier is needed?
A. code point alias
B. rewrite marker
C. multifield
D. behavior aggregate
Answer: C

Juniper   certification JN0-643   JN0-643   JN0-643 examen   JN0-643

NO.10 You have been asked to implement a private VLAN with two community VLANs.
This private VLAN will be confined to a single switch in your Layer 2 network.
This private VLAN, along with other VLANs configured on the switch, will require gateway services
provided through a connected router.
Which statement about this deployment is true?
A. All isolated ports must be configured as trunk ports.
B. A minimum of one promiscuous trunk port is required.
C. Both community VLANs must have an assigned VLAN IDs.
D. A minimum of one private VLAN trunk port is required.
Answer: B

certification Juniper   JN0-643 examen   JN0-643 examen

NO.11 You are AS 6573.
Which AS path regular expression matches only routes originated in your AS?
A. "6573.*"
B. ".*"
C. "{"
D. "

Guide de formation plus récente de Juniper JN0-696

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Code d'Examen: JN0-696
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Security Support, Professional (JNCSP-SEC))
Questions et réponses: 36 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to allow remote users using PCs running Windows 7 to access the network using an
IPsec VPN. You implement a route-based hub-and-spoke VPN; however, users report that they are
not able to access the network.
What is causing this problem?
A. The remote clients do not have proper licensing.
B. Hub-and-spoke VPNs cannot be route-based; they must be policy-based.
C. The remote clients' OS is not supported.
D. Hub-and-spoke VPNs do not support remote client access; a dynamic VPN must be implemented
instead.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your SRX Series device has the following configuration:
user@host> show security policies
...
Policy: my-policy, State: enabled, Index: 5, Sequence number: 1
Source addresses: any Destination addresses: any
Applications: snmp
Action: reject
From zone: trust, To zone: untrust
...
When traffic matches my-policy, you want the device to silently drop the traffic; however, you
notice that the device is replying with ICMP unreachable messages instead.
What is causing this behavior?
A. the snmp application
B. the reject action
C. the trust zone
D. the untrust zone
Answer: C

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NO.3 Users at a branch office report that they cannot reach an internal Web server. The users
connect through a single SRX Series device to reach the Web server. A security policy has been
configured on the device that allows traffic to flow between interfaces in the Trust zone.
What is causing this problem?
A. The interface on the device that connects to the Web server is not in the Trust zone.
B. The IPsec VPN connection between the users and the Web server is down.
C. There is a host inbound traffic configuration problem.
D. There is an antispam configuration problem.
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-696   JN0-696 examen

NO.4 Two SRX Series devices are having problems establishing an IPsec VPN session. One of the
devices has a firewall filter applied to its gateway interface that rejects UDP traffic.
What would resolve the problem?
A. Disable the IKE Phase 1 part of the session establishment.
B. Disable the IKE Phase 2 part of the session establishment.
C. Change the configuration so that session establishment uses TCP .
D. Edit the firewall filter to allow UDP port 500.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are having problems establishing an IPsec tunnel between two SRX Series devices.
What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. proposal mismatch
B. antivirus configuration
C. preshared key mismatch
D. TCP MSS clamping is disabled
Answer: B,D

Juniper   JN0-696   JN0-696

NO.6 You notice that the secondary node of a chassis cluster has become disabled.
What caused this behavior?
A. The fxp0 interface on the secondary device failed.
B. The control link between the devices failed.
C. A reth on the secondary device failed.
D. An IPsec tunnel between the two devices failed.
Answer: D

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ISM meilleur examen 630-008, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 630-008
Nom d'Examen: ISM (C.P.M. Module 4: Management)
Questions et réponses: 360 Q&As

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NO.1 Under which of the following circumstances is negative feedback appropriate?
A. Soon after the occurrence of the faulty behavior.
B. In the presence of other managerial personnel.
C. In the presence of other team members.
D. It is never appropriate.
Answer: A

ISM   630-008 examen   630-008   certification 630-008

NO.2 In which of the following defines a situation where objectives are more general at
the top of an organization and become more specific as one moves down the
organization?
A. Hierarchy of objectives.
B. Management By Objectives (MBO).
C. Decision support system.
D. Goal setting.
Answer: A

ISM examen   630-008   630-008   630-008 examen   630-008

NO.3 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. You are instructed to reduce
Certkiller .cm's MRO supplier base from 50 to 1. Which of the following would be
your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Buying at the lowest total cost, consistent with quality and service.
B. Achieving a high degree of cooperation with internal customers.
C. Developing reliable alternatives of supply.
D. Optimizing inventory turnover.
Answer: A

certification ISM   630-008   630-008   630-008 examen   630-008 examen

NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding the orientation of a buyer trainee are
FALSE?
A. The trainee should be informed of personal growth opportunities.
B. Orientation and training should be conducted separately during the trainee's initial
months on the job.
C. The trainee should be informed that his/her performance will be evaluated during
orientation and later on.
D. The trainee should be advised of purchasing's major staff and line activities.
Answer: B

ISM   630-008 examen   630-008   630-008

NO.5 Which of the following theories suggests that managers can attain the greatest level
of employee motivation by determining the most desirable outcomes?
A. Theory X.
B. Theory Z.
C. Expectancy theory.
D. Scientific management.
E. Motivation-Hygiene theory.
Answer: C

ISM   certification 630-008   certification 630-008   630-008 examen   630-008

NO.6 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. One of your buyers tends to
ignore outstanding purchase orders. This has resulted in numerous complaints from
the shop floor asking the buyer to determine order status. Which of the following
would be your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Inform the buyer to set up a system for follow-up.
B. Computerize the purchasing department operations.
C. Allow shop floor personnel to make their own purchases.
D. Inform the buyer that she will be dismissed if she does not improve her performance.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following does profit planning begin?
A. Business plans.
B. Long-range strategic plans.
C. Short-range strategic plans.
D. Strategic and operational plans.
Answer: D

ISM examen   630-008 examen   certification 630-008   630-008

NO.8 Which of the following can BEST enhance a measurement and control system for
evaluating buyer performance?
A. Including the buyer in the design of the system.
B. Including human resources in the design of the system.
C. Making a composite measurement of efficiency and effectiveness.
D. Being sufficiently broad in scope to allow the measurement of all contingencies.
Answer: A

ISM examen   certification 630-008   630-008 examen   630-008

NO.9 Which of the following is NOT an appropriate measure of performance for a
purchasing department?
A. Average time to place requisitions.
B. Total dollars contributed to profits.
C. Total dollars purchased per supplier.
D. Total product cost reduction compared to budget.
Answer: C

ISM   630-008   630-008   certification 630-008   certification 630-008

NO.10 What is the training method that facilitates the development of organization-wide
skills and requires good interpersonal skills called?
A. Functional rotation.
B. On-the-job training.
C. The "buddy" system.
D. Continuing education.
Answer: A

ISM   630-008 examen   630-008   certification 630-008

NO.11 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. A female employee has been
working for Certkiller .com for about 12 years and has 3 years to go until her
scheduled retirement. Recently, she was laid off from her position, and her duties
were absorbed by younger workers in the department. Under which of the following
is she MOST likely to have a claim against the company?
A. Equal Employment Opportunity Act.
B. National Labor Relations Act.
C. Age Discrimination Act.
D. Executive Order 11246.
Answer: C

certification ISM   630-008   630-008

NO.12 Which of the following methods should a purchasing manager use when evaluating
individual employee performance?
A. Performance standards set by the U.S. Department of Labor.
B. The requirements of the job, including position descriptions.
C. Management By Objectives, whether or not the employee helped set the objectives.
D. Uniform company-wide standards of performance developed by the human resources
department.
Answer: B

ISM   certification 630-008   630-008 examen

NO.13 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. An employee that has been at
Certkiller .com for 20-years has become accustomed to coming to work 30-45
minutes late. Initially, this was due to child-rearing responsibilities, but now is a
simply habit. The supervisor has asked the employee several times if there was a
problem and the answer has always been "no." The problem is beginning to have a
negative impact on the morale of the rest of the department. Which of the following
would be your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Dismiss the employee.
B. Have the employee attend counseling sessions.
C. Ask the human resources department to intervene and find a solution to the problem.
D. Set goals with the employee to improve on arrival time, and include a written report in
the employee's file.
Answer: D

certification ISM   630-008 examen   630-008   630-008

NO.14 Certkiller .com has more than 10,000 employees located on two regional branches
and on several smaller branches. Annual purchases of goods and services for
Certkiller .com exceed $150 million. In which of the following ways would
Certkiller .com LEAST likely benefit from a highly centralized purchasing function?
A. Improvements due to decreased duplication of effort.
B. Adherence to organization-wide standards and objectives.
C. Savings from standardization and improved economies of scale.
D. Satisfaction of product and source preferences for internal customers.
Answer: D

certification ISM   630-008   630-008   certification 630-008

NO.15 Which of the following is NOT a good indicator of purchasing department
performance?
A. Quality rejection rates for major items.
B. Number of purchase orders issued.
C. Percentage of on-time deliveries.
D. Number of stockout situations.
Answer: B

ISM examen   630-008 examen   630-008   630-008 examen

NO.16 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of promoting from within the
purchasing organization?
A. Keeping morale high.
B. Reducing training costs.
C. Stimulating individual performance.
D. Bringing experience in complementary areas.
Answer: D

ISM   630-008   630-008   630-008 examen   630-008

NO.17 Which of the following is LEAST important when evaluating buyer performance?
A. Quality of work.
B. Quantity of work.
C. Personal appearance.
D. Communication skills.
Answer: C

ISM examen   630-008 examen   630-008 examen   certification 630-008

NO.18 Which of the following documents is MOST important in transportation?
A. Bill of materials.
B. Bill of lading.
C. Bill of sale.
D. Manifest.
Answer: B

ISM   630-008   certification 630-008   630-008   certification 630-008

NO.19 Which of the following is generally NOT strategic in nature?
A. New advertising schedule implementation.
B. New dividend policy direction.
C. New product development.
D. New sources of financing.
Answer: A

ISM   630-008   630-008 examen   630-008 examen

NO.20 Which of the following would NOT be included in a typical audit of the purchasing
department in a manufacturing operation?
A. Inspection.
B. Organization policy.
C. Purchasing operations.
D. Inventory management.
Answer: A

ISM   630-008   certification 630-008

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Guide de formation plus récente de ISEB BH0-004

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Code d'Examen: BH0-004
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB ISTQB Certificate in Software Testing)
Questions et réponses: 44 Q&As

BH0-004 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/BH0-004.html

NO.1 As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage?
if width > length then
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
biggest_dimension = length
if height > length then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
end_if
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Answer: C

ISEB examen   BH0-004   BH0-004   BH0-004

NO.3 Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Answer: B

ISEB   certification BH0-004   BH0-004   BH0-004 examen

NO.4 Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Answer: A

ISEB examen   BH0-004   BH0-004 examen

NO.5 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
Answer: A

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Guide de formation plus récente de ISEB BH0-009

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Code d'Examen: BH0-009
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ITSM Foundation Certificate in Problem & Incident Management)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 When confirming the most probable cause, you should choose methods that are
A.Easiest, quickest, cheapest, safest, surest.
B.Things that you can do right now.
C.Acceptable to everyone who will be involved.
D.Able to be done experimentally i.e.not in live.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Once you have found the cause of a problem, you should use Think Beyond the Fix to prevent
recurrence.What are two ways to Think Beyond the Fix?
A.Extend the cause, extend the fix.
B.Identify likely causes, take preventive action.
C.Identify distinctions, identify changes.
D.Identify likely effects, plan contingent action.
Answer: A

certification ISEB   BH0-009   BH0-009   BH0-009   BH0-009

NO.3 Which of the following activities would initially help identify how green an organisation currently is?
A. Developing a Stakeholder Map.
B. Drafting an action register.
C. Holding a fact-finding workshop.
D. Creating a carbon accounting system.
Answer: C

ISEB   certification BH0-009   BH0-009   certification BH0-009

NO.4 Which of the following activities is NOT part of Situation Appraisal?
A.Identify concerns.
B.Set priority.
C.Identify possible causes.
D.Plan involvement.
Answer: C

certification ISEB   BH0-009   BH0-009   BH0-009

NO.5 The purpose of the problem specification is:
a.To document a factual description of the problem.
b.To show the boundaries of the problem.
c.To help eliminate possible causes.
d.To help identify distinctions.
A.a and c.
B.a, b and c.
C.b and d.
D.All of the above
Answer: D

ISEB   BH0-009   BH0-009   BH0-009

NO.6 In the Balance of Consequences, which of the consequence types should be used first to drive
behavioural change?
a)Immediate Positive.
b)Immediate Negative.
c)Delayed Positive.
d)Delayed Negative.
A.a and b.
B.c and d.
C.a only.
D.b only.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Why are Turnaround Questions used when developing a problem specification?
A.To drill down to the most specific answer.
B.To get lots of information.
C.When you stop making progress
D.To involve more people.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In Decision Analysis, actions to reduce risk:
a)Take a great amount of planning.
b)Can be done quickly and simply.
c)Should only be done when the risks are high.
d)Should bring risk to an acceptable level.
A.a and b.
B.b and d.
C.c only.
D.d only.
Answer: B

ISEB   BH0-009 examen   BH0-009

NO.9 When looking at the Performance System, which is the correct sequence?
A.Situation, Performer, Response, Feedback, Consequences.
B.Consequences, Feedback, Situation, Performer, Response.
C.Situation, Performer, Response, Consequences, Feedback.
D.Performer, Feedback, Situation, Consequences, Response.
Answer: C

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NO.10 When generating alternatives why is an expanded number of choices desirable?
A.To make sure any 'pet' alternatives are considered.
B.To increase the chances of picking a winner.
C.To ensure a complete, balanced set of alternatives.
D.To ensure the recommendation gets approved.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: BH0-011
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (BCS Intermediate certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

BH0-011 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/BH0-011.html

NO.1 Which of the following BEST define the aims of the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres.?
a. To determine and accelerate the application of energy efficient technologies.
b. Develop practical voluntary commitments which when implemented improve the energy efficiency of
data centres and in so doing minimise the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
c. To develop and promote a set of easily understood metrics to measure the current efficiencies and
subsequent improvement.
d. To encourage the closure of data centres that are less energy efficient.
e. To ensure that the EU is visibly taking a lead in this important area of energy conservation.
A. a, b, c and d
B. d and e
C. a, b and c
D. e only
Answer: C

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NO.2 The numerical value associated with each Best Practice is shown for the following reason:
A. To allow operators to add up their total score in order that they can be compared with their competitors.
B. To allow the Code of Conduct administrators to properly assess each application.
C. To provide an independent scorecard for data centre owners.
D. To indicate the level of benefit from carrying out a Best Practice.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their
efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet
agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense
of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data
centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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NO.4 'Facility load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the following?
a. The UPS.
b. Lighting.
c. Air-conditioning units.
d. Monitors housed in racks.
e. Tape libraries
A. a, b, and c
B. a and d
C. b and c
D. d, and e
Answer: A

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NO.5 A facility's 'IT load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the
following?
a. The Power Distribution Units feeding the racks
b. Servers
c. Firewalls
d. Switches
e. Tape libraries
A. b, c. d and e
B. a, d and e
C. b and c
D. b. c and d
Answer: A

ISEB   BH0-011   BH0-011

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Pass4Test offre de ISEB BH0-013 matériaux d'essai

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Code d'Examen: BH0-013
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Business Analysis )
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

BH0-013 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/BH0-013.html

NO.1 During which stage of the Business Analysis Process Model would a gap analysis be carried out?
A. Define requirements.
B. Analyse needs.
C. Evaluate the options.
D. Investigate situation.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following terms may be used to describe the attitude of a stakeholder who is NOT in favour
of the project but is probably not actively opposed to it?
A. Opponent.
B. Neutral.
C. Critic.
D. Blocker.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The required competencies of a business analyst are classified into three categories. Which of the
following is one of these three categories.?
A. Management Qualities.
B. Business Knowledge.
C. IT Skills
D. Project Skills.
Answer: B

certification ISEB   certification BH0-013   BH0-013   BH0-013

NO.4 On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?
A. The number of attributes held within each class.
B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.
C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.
D. The business rules for an association between two classes.
Answer: D

ISEB   certification BH0-013   BH0-013 examen   BH0-013   BH0-013

NO.5 It has been suggested that five clerical posts can be abolished when a new computer system is
implemented. Under which category of costs or benefits will this be recorded?
A. Tangible costs.
B. Tangible benefits.
C. Intangible costs.
D. Intangible benefits.
Answer: B

ISEB   BH0-013 examen   BH0-013 examen   certification BH0-013   BH0-013

NO.6 In which of the following business analysis areas does the traditional systems analyst role primarily
operate?
A. Quantifying costs and benefits.
B. Defining the needs of the business.
C. Implementing business changes.
D. Specifying IT system requirements.
Answer: D

certification ISEB   certification BH0-013   BH0-013

NO.7 Which stage in the waterfall model is considered as several separate stages in the V model?
A. Development.
B. Analysis.
C. Testing.
D. Design.
Answer: C

ISEB   BH0-013   BH0-013

NO.8 Business rules define how actions are to be performed. Under which of the following headings are
business rules considered?
A. Explicit or implicit management statements,
B. Statutory and internal policies.
C. Constraints and operational guidance.
D. Negotiable and non-negotiable limitations.
Answer: C

ISEB   certification BH0-013   certification BH0-013   certification BH0-013

NO.9 Different reactions may be observed when a change to working methods is proposed. These reactions
include:
a. Enthusiasm for the change.
b. Fear of the change.
c. Reduced performance on the job.
d. Reluctant acceptance of the change.
Which of the following represents the typical sequence of these four reactions?
A. b, d, c and a.
B. a, b, c and d.
C. b, c, d and a.
D. a, b, d and c.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following statement is TRUE about the process view of an organisation?
A. It focuses on the customer of the organisation.
B. It focuses solely on the internal view of the organisation.
C. It focuses on the functions of an organisation.
D. It focuses on the organisational structure.
Answer: A

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NO.11 When should benefits realisation be carried out?
A. Immediately at the end of the project.
B. At the beginning of the project.
C. At the end of the finalised feasibility study.
D. Months or years after the end of the project.
Answer: D

ISEB   BH0-013   certification BH0-013

NO.12 In a particular organisation it is common practice to call all managers by their first name. It is part of the
culture of the organisation. Newcomers are quickly corrected if they do not follow this informal approach.
What would knowing about this convention be classified as in Requirements Engineering?
A. Explicit individual knowledge.
B. Tacit individual knowledge.
C. Explicit corporate knowledge.
D. Tacit corporate knowledge.
Answer: D

certification ISEB   certification BH0-013   BH0-013   BH0-013

NO.13 Which of the following investigation techniques involves following a user for one or two days in order to
find out what a particular job entails?
A. Scenario analysis.
B. Protocol analysis.
C. Shadowing.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: C

ISEB   BH0-013 examen   BH0-013   BH0-013 examen

NO.14 A stakeholder has been classified as 'some' on both the power/influence and interest axes of a
power/interest grid. Which of the following would be an appropriate way of managing this stakeholder?
A. Keep on side.
B. Keep watching.
C. Keep informed.
D. Keep satisfied.
Answer: A

ISEB examen   BH0-013   BH0-013   BH0-013

NO.15 A batch program runs every night to raise invoices. The next day these invoices are posted out to
customers by a clerk. Customers pay the invoices with cheques. The cheques are then banked by a clerk.
In this scenario, which of the following represents a business event?
A. System prints invoices.
B. Clerk sends invoices to customers.
C. Customer's cheque is received.
D. Clerk banks the cheque.
Answer: C

certification ISEB   BH0-013   BH0-013   BH0-013

NO.16 A well formed requirement is said to comply with which of the following acronyms?
A. MOSCOW.
B. SMART.
C. OSCAR.
D. MOST.
Answer: B

ISEB examen   certification BH0-013   BH0-013   BH0-013   BH0-013

NO.17 Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?
A. The project pays back in year 4 of the project.
B. The project does not pay back within the four year period.
C. The project pays back in year 2 of the project.
D. The project pays back in year 3 of the project.
Answer: B

ISEB   BH0-013 examen   certification BH0-013   certification BH0-013

NO.18 What is the first stage of the waterfall systems development lifecycle?
A. Plan.
B. Analysis.
C. Feasibility Study.
D. Strategic Vision.
Answer: C

ISEB   certification BH0-013   BH0-013 examen

NO.19 As part of an investigation a Business Analyst has devised a form for users of an existing system to use
to keep track of the tasks they undertake during their working day. Which of the following describes this
investigation technique?
A. Special purpose records,
B. Scenario analysis.
C. Questionnaires.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: A

ISEB   certification BH0-013   BH0-013   BH0-013 examen

NO.20 What does the O' stand for in the CATVVOE analysis?
A. The objectives of the business system under review.
B. The opportunities for change in the business system under review.
C. The organisation of the business system under review.
D. The owner of the business system under review.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: CAP
Nom d'Examen: ISC (CAP – Certified Authorization Professional)
Questions et réponses: 395 Q&As

CAP Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/CAP.html

NO.1 Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk
identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing
that
the risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Project document updates
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Risk register
Answer: D

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.2 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

ISC   CAP   certification CAP   CAP
Topic 2, Volume D

NO.3 Which of the following processes is a structured approach to transitioning individuals, teams,
and
organizations from a current state to a desired future state?
A. Configuration management
B. Procurement management
C. Change management
D. Risk management
Answer: C

ISC   certification CAP   CAP
Topic 3, Volume C

NO.4 Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security
evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
Answer: B

ISC   certification CAP   CAP   CAP examen
Topic 4, Volume B

NO.5 Which of the following is NOT an objective of the security program?
A. Security organization
B. Security plan
C. Security education
D. Information classification
Answer: B

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Topic 1, Volume A

NO.6 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title
commonly
given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief
Information Officer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then
working within a budget to implement the plan
Answer: A,C,D

ISC examen   CAP examen   CAP   certification CAP
Topic 2, Volume D

NO.7 What does RTM stand for?
A. Resource Testing Method
B. Replaced Traceability Matrix
C. Requirements Traceability Matrix
D. Resource Tracking Matrix
Answer: C

ISC examen   CAP   certification CAP   CAP examen

NO.8 Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system,
network,
or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following
areas can be exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Race conditions
B. Social engineering
C. Information system architectures
D. Buffer overflows
E. Kernel flaws
F. Trojan horses
G. File and directory permissions
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

ISC examen   certification CAP   CAP

NO.9 Which of the following system security policies is used to address specific issues of concern to
the
organization?
A. Program policy
B. Issue-specific policy
C. Informative policy
D. System-specific policy
Answer: B

ISC   CAP examen   certification CAP   CAP examen
Topic 3, Volume C

NO.10 David is the project manager of HGF project for his company. David, the project team, and
several
key stakeholders have completed risk identification and are ready to move into qualitative risk
analysis. Tracy, a project team member, does not understand why they need to complete
qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following is the best explanation for completing
qualitative risk analysis?
A. It isa rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for the plan risk responses and
lays the foundation for quantitative analysis.
B. It is a cost-effective means of establishing probability and impact for the project risks.
C. Qualitative risk analysis helps segment the project risks, create a risk breakdown structure, and
create fast and accurate risk responses.
D. All risks must pass through quantitative risk analysis before qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: A

ISC   CAP   CAP
Topic 1, Volume A

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