2014年1月31日星期五

ISEB ISEB-SWT2, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: ISEB-SWT2
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISTQB-ISEB Certified Tester Foundation Level)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
A. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders
B. Logging the outcome of test execution
C. Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy.
D. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system
Answer: A

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NO.2 During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis?
A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
B. Test implementation and execution
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test planning and control
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following are characteristics of good testing in any life cycle model? A. Every
development activity has a corresponding test activity.
b. Testers review development documents early.
c. There are separate levels for component and system integration test.
d. Each test level has objectives specific to that level.
e. Each test level is based on the same test basis.
A. a, d and e
B. b, c and e
C. a, c and d
D. a, b and d
Answer: D

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NO.4 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is GENERALLY true of testing?
a. Testing can show the presence of defects.
b. Testing reduces the probability of uncovered defects.
c. Testing can show that a previously present defect has been removed.
d. Testing can prove that software is defect free.
A. a, b and c
B. a, b and d
C. a, c and d
D. b, c and d Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a. Stubs may be used.
b. May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c. Tests the interactions between software components.
d. Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a. Adapt planning based on test results.
b. Create test specifications.
c. Plan tests.
d. Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader. a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader. c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader. b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader. b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard Vmodel after system testing?
A. System Integration Testing
B. Acceptance Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Component Integration Testing
Answer: A

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NO.9 How is the scope of maintenance testing assessed?
A. Scope is related to the risk, size of the changes and size of the system under test
B. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
C. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
D. Scope is related to the number of system users affected by the change.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Given the following sample of pseudo code: 01 Input number of male rabbits 02 Input number of
female rabbits 03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then 04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No? 06 Print Keep male and female rabbits apart!? 07 End if 08 End If. Which of the
following test cases will ensure that statement ?6?is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = yes?
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = no?
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = yes?
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = no?
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following BEST describes a datadriven approach to the use of test execution tools?
A. Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data
B. Manipulation of databases and files to create test data
C. Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file
D. Recording test scripts and playing them back
Answer: C

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NO.12 A system requires 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules. The following module
has been tested with a single test case.
The test case follows the path A, B, D, E, F, G. What level of decision coverage has been achieved?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?
a. Variables that are never used.
b. Security vulnerabilities.
c. Poor performance.
d. Unreachable code.
e. Business processes not followed.
A. b, c and d are true. a and e are false
B. a is true. b, c, d and e are false
C. c, d and e are true. a and b are false
D. a, b and d are true. c and e are false
Answer: D

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NO.14 When in the lifecycle should testing activities start?
A. As early as possible
B. After the test environment is ready
C. After the requirements have been reviewed
D. Once the code is available to test Answer: A

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NO.15 Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true?
A. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts
B. A metricsbased approach is based on creating a workbreakdown structure first. an expertbased
approach is based on input from estimation experts
C. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
is based on a workbreakdown structure
D. A metricsbased approach is based on an analysis of the specification documents. an expertbased
approach is based on the opinion of the most experienced tester in the organisation
Answer: A

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ISEB BH0-011, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: BH0-011
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (BCS Intermediate certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 'Facility load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the following?
a. The UPS.
b. Lighting.
c. Air-conditioning units.
d. Monitors housed in racks.
e. Tape libraries
A. a, b, and c
B. a and d
C. b and c
D. d, and e
Answer: A

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NO.2 The numerical value associated with each Best Practice is shown for the following reason:
A. To allow operators to add up their total score in order that they can be compared with their competitors.
B. To allow the Code of Conduct administrators to properly assess each application.
C. To provide an independent scorecard for data centre owners.
D. To indicate the level of benefit from carrying out a Best Practice.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their
efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet
agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense
of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data
centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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NO.4 A facility's 'IT load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the
following?
a. The Power Distribution Units feeding the racks
b. Servers
c. Firewalls
d. Switches
e. Tape libraries
A. b, c. d and e
B. a, d and e
C. b and c
D. b. c and d
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following BEST define the aims of the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres.?
a. To determine and accelerate the application of energy efficient technologies.
b. Develop practical voluntary commitments which when implemented improve the energy efficiency of
data centres and in so doing minimise the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
c. To develop and promote a set of easily understood metrics to measure the current efficiencies and
subsequent improvement.
d. To encourage the closure of data centres that are less energy efficient.
e. To ensure that the EU is visibly taking a lead in this important area of energy conservation.
A. a, b, c and d
B. d and e
C. a, b and c
D. e only
Answer: C

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Dernières ISC SSCP examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: SSCP
Nom d'Examen: ISC (System Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP) )
Questions et réponses: 254 Q&As

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NO.1 The ability to identify and audit a user and his / her actions is known as ____________.
A. Journaling
B. Auditing
C. Accessibility
D. Accountability
E. Forensics
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which form of media is handled at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI Reference
Model?
A. MAC
B. L2TP
C. SSL
D. HTTP
E. Ethernet
Answer: E

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NO.3 IKE - Internet Key Exchange is often used in conjunction with
what security standard?
A. SSL
B. OPSEC
C. IPSEC
D. Kerberos
E. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.4 Multi-partite viruses perform which functions?
A. Infect multiple partitions
B. Infect multiple boot sectors
C. Infect numerous workstations
D. Combine both boot and file virus behavior
Answer: D

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NO.5 One method that can reduce exposure to malicious code is to run
applications as generic accounts with little or no privileges.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 Passwords should be changed every ________ days at a minimum.
90 days is the recommended minimum, but some resources will tell you that 30-60 days is
ideal.
Answer: 90

NO.7 The ultimate goal of a computer forensics specialist is to ___________________.
A. Testify in court as an expert witness
B. Preserve electronic evidence and protect it from any alteration
C. Protect the company's reputation
D. Investigate the computer crime
Answer: B

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NO.8 Layer 4 in the DoD model overlaps with which layer(s) of the
OSI model?
A. Layer 7 - Application Layer
B. Layers 2, 3, & 4 - Data Link, Network, and Transport Layers
C. Layer 3 - Network Layer
D. Layers 5, 6, & 7 - Session, Presentation, and Application Layers
Answer: D

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NO.9 When an employee leaves the company, their network access account should be
__________?
Answer: Disable

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NO.10 A standardized list of the most common security weaknesses and exploits is the
__________.
A. SANS Top 10
B. CSI/FBI Computer Crime Study
C. CVE - Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. CERT Top 10
Answer: C

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NO.11 There are 5 classes of IP addresses available, but only 3 classes are in common use today,
identify the three: (Choose three)
A. Class A: 1-126
B. Class B: 128-191
C. Class C: 192-223
D. Class D: 224-255
E. Class E: 0.0.0.0 - 127.0.0.1
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.12 A salami attack refers to what type of activity?
A. Embedding or hiding data inside of a legitimate communication - a picture, etc.
B. Hijacking a session and stealing passwords
C. Committing computer crimes in such small doses that they almost go unnoticed
D. Setting a program to attack a website at 11:59 am on New Year's Eve
Answer: C

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NO.13 The act of intercepting the first message in a public key exchange and substituting a bogus key
for the original key is an example of which style of attack?
A. Spoofing
B. Hijacking
C. Man In The Middle
D. Social Engineering
E. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
Answer: C

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NO.14 An attempt to break an encryption algorithm is called _____________.
Answer: Cryptanalysis

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NO.15 _____ is the authoritative entity which lists port assignments
A. IANA
B. ISSA
C. Network Solutions
D. Register.com
E. InterNIC
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the concepts best describes Availability in relation to
computer resources?
A. Users can gain access to any resource upon request (assuming they have proper permissions)
B. Users can make authorized changes to data
C. Users can be assured that the data content has not been altered
D. None of the concepts describes Availability properly
Answer: A

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NO.17 DES - Data Encryption standard has a 128 bit key and is very difficult to break.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.18 ______________ is a major component of an overall risk management program.
Answer: Risk assessment

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NO.19 Is the person who is attempting to log on really who they say they are? What form of access
control does this questions stem from?
A. Authorization
B. Authentication
C. Kerberos
D. Mandatory Access Control
Answer: B

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NO.20 A Security Reference Monitor relates to which DoD security
standard?
A. LC3
B. C2
C. D1
D. L2TP
E. None of the items listed
Answer: B

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NO.21 What security principle is based on the division of job responsibilities - designed to prevent
fraud?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Separation of Duties
C. Information Systems Auditing
D. Concept of Least Privilege
Answer: B

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NO.22 Cable modems are less secure than DSL connections because cable modems are shared
with other subscribers?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.23 Instructions or code that executes on an end user's machine from a web browser is known
as __________ code.
A. Active X
B. JavaScript
C. Malware
D. Windows Scripting
E. Mobile
Answer: E

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NO.24 If Big Texastelephone company suddenly started billing you for caller ID and call
forwarding without your permission, this practice is referred to as __________________.
Answer: Cramming

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NO.25 HTTP, FTP, SMTP reside at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Layer 1 - Physical
B. Layer 3 - Network
C. Layer 4 - Transport
D. Layer 7 - Application
E. Layer 2 - Data Link
Answer: D

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NO.26 What are some of the major differences of Qualitative vs. Quantitative methods of performing
risk analysis? (Choose all that apply)
A. Quantitative analysis uses numeric values
B. Qualitative analysis uses numeric values
C. Quantitative analysis is more time consuming
D. Qualitative analysis is more time consuming
E. Quantitative analysis is based on Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) formulas
F. Qualitative analysis is based on Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) formulas
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.27 What is the main difference between computer abuse and
computer crime?
A. Amount of damage
B. Intentions of the perpetrator
C. Method of compromise
D. Abuse = company insider; crime = company outsider
Answer: B

ISC examen   SSCP examen   certification SSCP   SSCP   certification SSCP

NO.28 Wiretapping is an example of a passive network attack?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

ISC   SSCP examen   SSCP   SSCP

NO.29 Trend Analysis involves analyzing historical ___________ files in order to look for patterns
of abuse or misuse.
Answer: Log files

ISC examen   certification SSCP   SSCP   SSCP examen

NO.30 ____________ is a file system that was poorly designed and has numerous security flaws.
A. NTS
B. RPC
C. TCP
D. NFS
E. None of the above
Answer: D

ISC   SSCP examen   SSCP   SSCP

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Code d'Examen: 000-M22
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Rational Application Developer Tech Sales Mastery V1)
Questions et réponses: 34 Q&As

000-M22 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/000-M22.html

NO.1 Why is IBM Rational Application Developer(RAD) important to SOA?
A. RAD is the Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) for SOA architecture.
B. SOA is a graphical extension to automated architecture. RAD graphical interface allows SOAautomat
ed architecture todevelop service components.
C. RAD does not support any features for SOA, so it is not important for SOA.
D. RAD has the capability to develop SOA pieces such as Web services,which can be an integral part of
an SOA.
Answer:D

certification IBM   000-M22   000-M22   000-M22

NO.2 Which one of the following editors does not come with IBM Rational Application Developer?
A. WSDL Editor
B. XSL Editor
C. Java Visual Editor
D. Hibernate Mapping Editor
Answer:D

IBM examen   certification 000-M22   000-M22 examen   000-M22

NO.3 Which one of the following provides for remoteWSDL validation?
A. ServletWizard
B. Web Services Wizard
C. XpathWizard
D. SessionWizard
Answer:B

IBM   certification 000-M22   certification 000-M22
This document was created with Win2PDF available at http://www.win2pdf.com.
The unregistered version of Win2PDF is for evaluation or non-commercial use only.
This page will not be added after purchasing Win2PDF.

NO.4 When usingAgent Controller to gather information about applications running on a remote system you
needto installAgent Controller:
A. On the same system as RAD is installed
B. On a remote system to which you would like to publish your application
C. On the remote system fromwhich the log files are imported
D. On the system where you runtest cases
Answer:B

IBM   certification 000-M22   000-M22   000-M22

NO.5 What is the scriptable bytecode instrumentation (BCI) framework that is used to write Java codefragm
ents?
A. A Memory Leak Framework
B. A Probekit
C. A Profile Toolkit
D. A Snippet Generator
Answer:B

IBM examen   000-M22   000-M22   000-M22   000-M22

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Certification IBM de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 000-417, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-417
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Information Analyzer V8.0)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two connectors are automatically available when defining a data source to Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. ODBCConnector
B. JDBCConnector
C. DataStageConnector
D. WebSphereMQConnector
Answer: AD

certification IBM   000-417 examen   000-417 examen   000-417 examen   000-417 examen

NO.2 A company has determined a need for profiling a centralized data warehouse for business intelligence
reporting.
During the initial client discovery session, which three initial questions should be addressed? (Choose
three.)
A. Which data marts are generated?
B. Which data sources are contributors?
C. Which underlying issues are suspected?
D. Which users are subject matter experts?
E. Which are the referential integrity violations?
Answer: BCD

IBM   000-417 examen   000-417

NO.3 Given a review of a new column analysis, which review processes must be completed in sequence?
A. domain analysis, then format analysis
B. format analysis, then properties analysis
C. domain analysis, then rebuild inferences
D. properties analysis, then classification analysis
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-417 examen   000-417

NO.4 You have an Information Analyzer installation in an environment where multiple servers and multiple
operating systems are available.
Which two configurations are valid? (Choose two.)
A. all layers on one RedHat Linux server
B. Domain and Repository layers on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on one AIX UNIX server
C. Domain and Repository layers on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on another RedHat Linux
server
D. Domain layer on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on one AIX UNIX server, Repository layer on
another AIX UNIX server
Answer: AC

IBM examen   certification 000-417   000-417 examen   000-417

NO.5 Which architectural component applies to both Information Analyzer and AuditStage?
A. XMeta
B. domain
C. client interface
D. parallel engine
Answer: C

IBM   000-417   000-417

NO.6 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use DB2 as the analysis database, which statement
is true?
A. The analysis database is automatically created at installation.
B. You must install the analysis database after you install the suite.
C. The analysis database DSN is automatically created at installation.
D. You must configure the analysis database before you install the suite.
Answer: A

IBM   000-417 examen   000-417   000-417

NO.7 What are two architectural components of AuditStage? (Choose two.)
A. client interface
B. parallel execution engine
C. internal or external database
D. common services connector
Answer: AC

certification IBM   000-417   certification 000-417   000-417   000-417   000-417 examen

NO.8 Which method should be used to estimate disk space to store frequency distributions for a given
column based on the volume of data to be profiled?
A. Multiply the number of distinct values by 2000.
B. Multiply the total number of columns and the total number of rows.
C. Multiply the number of rows by the sum of the column length and the maximum column format size
plus 150.
D. Multiply the number of rows by the sum of the column length and the maximum number of formats plus
150.
Answer: C

IBM   000-417   000-417   000-417 examen

NO.9 For a data quality assessment project, which three roles are involved throughout the assessment?
(Choose three.)
A. data modeler
B. data analyst
C. ETL developer
D. business analyst
E. business subject matter expert
Answer: BDE

certification IBM   000-417 examen   000-417   certification 000-417

NO.10 Which two roles must be assigned to a user to complete the configuration of Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. data administrator
B. project administrator
C. database administrator
D. production administrator
Answer: AB

IBM   certification 000-417   000-417 examen   000-417

NO.11 Which two statements are true when importing metadata describing a data source? (Choose two.)
A. Column definitions can be changed by the user during import.
B. Metadata can be discovered by using the Identify Next Level function.
C. Discovered metadata is automatically imported into the analysis database.
D. Metadata for table and column definitions can be discovered using the Identify All Levels function.
Answer: BD

IBM   certification 000-417   000-417   000-417 examen   000-417

NO.12 Which three steps must be completed to make a data source available for analysis in Information
Analyzer? (Choose three.)
A. Define a host computer.
B. Import the source metadata.
C. Import a sample set of source records.
D. Define an ODBC connection to the data source.
E. Define an ODBC connection to the IADB repository.
Answer: ABD

IBM   000-417   000-417

NO.13 Which statement is true with regards to publishing analysis results?
A. Reference tables can be created then published and accessed using QualityStage.
B. Categories can be created then published and accessed using Business Glossary.
C. The accepted primary and foreign keys can be published then accessed using DataStage.
D. The candidate primary and foreign keys can be published then accessed using Business Glossary.
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-417 examen   000-417   000-417

NO.14 Which three methods can be used to review the results of domain analysis? (Choose three.)
A. Examine each value individually.
B. Specify a range to determine the validity of the values.
C. Compare all of the values to the values in a reference table.
D. Specify a conditional test to determine the validity of the values.
E. Create an automated script to check the validity of values based on business requirements.
Answer: ABC

IBM   000-417 examen   000-417

NO.15 Which analysis builds a complete set of all the column pairs between primary key columns and
remaining selected columns in selected tables?
A. column analysis
B. foreign key analysis
C. cross table analysis
D. primary key analysis
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-417   certification 000-417

NO.16 What must be installed prior to AuditStage?
A. .NET Framework
B. Information Server
C. Java Run-time Environment
D. Microsoft Data Access Components
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-417   000-417   certification 000-417   000-417

NO.17 A company has embarked on the implementation of a centralized data warehouse.
Data Quality Assessment will be addressed at which two points in the implementation project? (Choose
two.)
A. periodically during post-implementation
B. during the initial project plan development
C. during the analysis phase before actual design begins
D. during acceptance testing conducted after construction but before the warehouse is turned over for use
Answer: CD

IBM examen   000-417 examen   000-417 examen   certification 000-417

NO.18 Which three steps must be performed to tell Information Analyzer where data is located? (Choose
three.)
A. Define a host.
B. Define a project.
C. Define a data store.
D. Define a data connection.
E. Define analysis settings.
Answer: ACD

IBM examen   000-417   000-417   certification 000-417   000-417

NO.19 When planning a data quality assessment project, application owners have expressed reluctance to
provide real-time access to their source systems using Information Analyzer.
Which two concepts should be discussed and understood by the assessment team? (Choose two.)
A. data standardization needed
B. data transformation rules needed
C. timeliness of data and its effect on structural metadata
D. timeliness of data and its effect on data assessment results
Answer: CD

IBM examen   000-417   000-417 examen   000-417   000-417 examen

NO.20 What are two valid ways of connecting AuditStage to a database? (Choose two.)
A. JDBC
B. federation
C. Information Analyzer
D. direct database connection
Answer: BD

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Code d'Examen: 000-M12
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Workplace Content Management)
Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

000-M12 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/000-M12.html

NO.1 Which is NOT a benefit of Information Analyzer?
A. Gain insight into your data source
B. Reduce hardware requirements
C. Improve personnel productivity
D. Reduce the time to profile data by 70%
Answer: B

IBM   000-M12   000-M12

NO.2 Does DataStage have the ability to run a process across multiple machines in a GRID?
A. No.DataStage can only be run on single SMP machines with multiple CPUs
B. Yes.DataStage can run across a grid of homogeneous environments
C. Yes.DataStage can run across a grid that includes Windows, Unix and mainframe processors
D. No.DataStage only runs on one CPU
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-M12   certification 000-M12   000-M12 examen   certification 000-M12

NO.3 QualityStage delivers higher match rates than other products in the industry for de-duplication and
matching. What is the unique capability of QualityStage that helps QualityStage deliver these higher
match rates?
A. Statistical Pattern Counting
B. Bit level character comparisons
C. Probabalistic Record Linkage
D. Phrase parsing
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-M12   000-M12   000-M12

NO.4 How does Information Analyzer share meta data and results with the rest of Information Server?
A. Emails are automatically sent to all Information Server users
B. An html page is generated with analysis results
C. Analysis results and notes from data profiling research are saved in themeta data layer of Information
Server and are available for viewing in DataStage and other Information Server tools
D. Automatic RSS publication of analysis results
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-M12   000-M12   000-M12 examen   000-M12

NO.5 What function does Business Glossary NOT help enterprises achieve?
A. Agree on common business terminology
B. Assign data stewards to manage business terms
C. Create a repository for ALL their corporatemeta data
D. Classify technical objects using accepted terms and definitions
Answer: C

IBM   000-M12   000-M12   000-M12 examen   000-M12 examen

NO.6 There are many ways to exploit the concept of re-use with DataStage/QualityStage. Which feature
below describes a graphical unit of re-use that can be included in any Job?
A. Graphical Job Sequencer
B. Performance monitor
C. Stage palette
D. Shared Containers
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-M12   000-M12   000-M12

NO.7 Which of the following cannot be published by WebSphere Information Services Director (WISD)
as a Service?
A. DataStage Jobs
B. Teradata Stored Procedures
C. Federation Queries
D. QualityStage Jobs
Answer: B

IBM   000-M12   000-M12   certification 000-M12

NO.8 What is the goal of the various application Packs that exist for Information Server?
A. Better pricing and installation options
B. To accelerate team development
C. To enhance of source code management
D. To support loading/unloading and data integration with popular packaged applications such as
Oracle Financials, SAP, and JD Edwards
Answer: D

IBM examen   certification 000-M12   certification 000-M12   certification 000-M12   000-M12

NO.9 Are DataStage and QualityStage integrated at the interface, metadata, and engine levels?
A. No. They are only integrated at runtime.
B. Yes. They are integrated for developers at design time, at the engine for runtime, and at themeta data
level for impact analysis and data lineage.
C. No. They still have separate developer interfaces.
D. No. They can invoke each other at run time at the engine level, but have a separatemeta data model.
Answer: B

IBM   000-M12   certification 000-M12   000-M12   000-M12 examen

NO.10 Can DataStage and Information Server access mainframe (zOS) data sources such as IMS, VSAM,
Model 204 and ADABAS (among others)?
A. No.DataStage can only access local flat files.
B. Yes.DataStage can access any remote source using all the Connectivity capabilities of
Federation Server and Classic Federation, or via connections to partner offerings.
C. No.DataStage can only read data files via ODBC.
D. No.DataStage can only read data files via JDBC.
Answer: B

IBM   000-M12   000-M12   certification 000-M12   000-M12 examen

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Code d'Examen: 000-647
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Performance Tester)
Questions et réponses: 58 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the goal of the workload analysis?
A. to clarify the objective of the workload interval
B. to ensure that tests performed represent real user activity
C. to gather statistics about the system under test
D. to identify the critical measurement points for each test
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-647   certification 000-647   certification 000-647   000-647 examen

NO.2 What are the most common measurement criteria collected during performance tests?
A. execution timestamp and passed verification points
B. object recognition and verification points
C. response times and throughput
D. tester names and test user groups
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-647   000-647   000-647   000-647 examen   000-647

NO.3 What is the recommended number of variables you should change at one time for tests that will be
compared?
A. all
B. four
C. none
D. one
Answer: D

IBM   000-647   000-647 examen   certification 000-647

NO.4 You manipulate the execution of steps in a test by repeating sequences of a transaction. How can you
add further control?
A. add a Loop test element and then Events and Dependencies in the test suite
B. add do or for loop statements to the test source code and then use either the breakLoop() or the
continueLoop() method
C. add a Loop test element and then custom code classes with either the breakLoop() or the
continueLoop() method
D. add a Loop test element and then Loop Control test elements in the test editor
Answer: C

IBM   000-647   000-647   000-647 examen   certification 000-647

NO.5 What documents all artifacts that define the system, users, and tasks associated with the target
workload for the performance testing effort?
A. datapool document
B. product manual
C. test schedule guide
D. workload analysis document
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-647   certification 000-647

NO.6 Which type of performance test determines the conditions under which a system fails and how it fails?
A. load
B. longevity and endurance
C. stress
D. volume
Answer: C

IBM   000-647   certification 000-647   000-647 examen   000-647

NO.7 What is the first step in workload definition?
A. clarify and document the goals of the performance-testing project
B. examine the production environment being tested
C. identify test variables and user groups
D. record a performance test to verify that the application is testable
Answer:A

IBM   000-647 examen   certification 000-647   certification 000-647   000-647 examen

NO.8 How can you create a copy of an RPT test?
A. right-click the test; select Copy from the menu; enter a new name for the copied test
B. select the test; from the File menu, click ? Save As ; enter a new name for the copied test
C. switch to the Navigator view; select the source Java file (*.rec) of the test; from the File menu, click ?
Save As; enter a new name for the copied test
D. from the Navigator view, right-click the .recmodel file; select Generate Test; choose Performance Test
Generator; enter a new name for the copied test
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-647   000-647   000-647   000-647

NO.9 What must you do if you want to record tests on a web browser other than Microsoft Internet Explorer?
A. download and install the RPT IE plug-in for the supported web browser from developerWorks
B. select Enable Environments for Testing from the Configure menu and add the web browser as
described in the product documentation
C. manually configure the browser to communicate to the server(s) via a SOCKS proxy as described in
the product documentation
D. manually configure the web browser to use the Microsoft JVM as described in the product
documentation
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-647 examen   000-647   000-647

NO.10 You want to use test data in RPT custom code that comes from a server (for example, to validate a
response or to calculate a running total). What must you do to accomplish this?
A. create a datapool value that gets its value from a test reference for the server value, then add this to
the custom code argument list
B. create a reference for the server value at the beginning of the test, then add this to the custom code
argument list
C. create a reference for the server value anywhere before/above the point in the test where the value is
returned, then add this to the custom code argument list
D. create a reference for the server value at the footer of the test, then add this to the custom code
argument list
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-647   000-647

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Code d'Examen: 000-015
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 148 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about the Users and Custodians functionality?
A.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets. A User is someone who uses the Asset. A Custodian
is someone responsible for the care of the Asset. For each person entered, the User field, the Custodian
field or both must be checked. One person can be nominated as the Primary Contact for the Asset.
B.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets and Locations. A User is someone who uses the Asset
or Location. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset or Location. For each person
entered, either the User field or the Custodian field or both fields must be checked. One person can be
nominated as the Primary Contact for the Asset or Location.
C.User and Custodians can be created for Assets, Locations and Configuration Items (CIs). The dialog
box has a table window for creating Users and Custodians and another for creating Primary Contacts who
are used for communicating information about the Asset, Location or CI by email or bulletin board. A
person can be a user or a custodian, or both a user and a custodian.
D.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets and Locations. A User is someone who uses the
Asset. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset. The Primary Contact is used for
communicating information about the Asset or Location by email or bulletin board. These three fields act
like a radio button, only one of them can be checked on each person record.
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-015   certification 000-015   000-015 examen

NO.2 What is a Failure Code hierarchy?
A.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Work Classification
B.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on an Asset Classification
C.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Failure Classification
D.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Location Classification
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-015   certification 000-015

NO.3 Which field(s) are hidden on the Asset application and may need the Application Designer in order to
display them?
A.Priority
B.Failure Class
C.Calendar and Shift Number
D.GL Account, Warranty Expiry Date
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-015   000-015   certification 000-015   000-015

NO.4 An attribute is added to a ClassStructure record in the Classifications application.
On which applications will the attribute be copied to existing records that use this classification?
A.Assets, Item, Locations
B.Job Plan, Ticket Template, Item
C.all applications that have a Specifications tab
D.Assets, Item, Job Plan, Preventive Maintenance
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-015   000-015   000-015

NO.5 Where can a Meter Group be referenced?
A.Asset, Location, Rotating Item
B.Asset, Item Master, Service Item, Tools
C.Asset, Location, Preventive Maintenance
D.Asset, Preventive Maintenance, Condition Monitoring
Answer: A

IBM   000-015 examen   000-015   certification 000-015

NO.6 When can Material Receipts be changed if inspection is not required?
A.prior to saving the Receipt Line
B.prior to inspecting the Receipt Line
C.prior to approving the Receipt Line
D.prior to completing the Receipt Line
Answer: A

IBM   000-015   000-015   000-015

NO.7 The appropriate status to invoke a Preventive Maintenance (PM) alert has been determined to be in the
Organization application.
What is the Select Action menu item where this can be set?
A.PM options
B.Asset options
C.System settings
D.Work Order options
Answer: A

IBM   000-015 examen   certification 000-015

NO.8 Which three statements are true about using the Move/Modify Assets or Swap Assets actions in the
Assets application? (Choose three.)
A.Any Asset can be moved to any site
B.Multiple Assets cannot be moved to another site in one action.
C.An Asset cannot be moved to another site if the Asset number already exists at that site.
D.Multiple Assets can be moved to the same Location or make these Assets a child of another Asset.
E.A hierarchy of Assets can be moved from one Location to another in the same site by selecting just the
top parent Asset.
F.A hierarchy of Assets can be moved into a storeroom by selecting just the top parent Asset, if all Assets
in the hierarchy are rotating.
Answer: DEF

IBM   000-015   certification 000-015   000-015   000-015

NO.9 Which statement about Condition Monitoring is the most accurate?
A.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset or Location. Before creating these
points, a meter of type Gauge or Characteristic must be defined.
B.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset. The meter type of these points will
be Gauge. A meter does not need to be created as this is created automatically.
C.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset. The Asset's current location is
provided as a reference. The point type needs to be specified as Gauge or Characteristic before entering
other details.
D.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset or Location. As each point is created,
a Gauge type meter for the measurements to be recorded against needs to be created. Characteristic
meters are not set up in Condition Monitoring, but on the Job Plan.
Answer: A

IBM   000-015   000-015   000-015 examen

NO.10 Where are Ticket Templates used?
A.Work Requests
B.Service Requests
C.Desktop Requisitions
D.Work Order Tracking
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-015 examen   000-015 examen   certification 000-015

NO.11 Which statement is true about a characteristic meter in the Condition Monitoring application?
A.Multiple action values can be entered that belong to an ALN domain. When an action value is recorded,
a Job Plan or a PM is used to generate a Work Order.
B.Multiple action values can be entered that belong to either an ALN or a Numeric domain. When an
action value is recorded, a PM is used to generate a Work Order.
C.An upper limit and a lower limit can be entered. When the last measurement is outside of these limits, a
Preventive Maintenance (PM) can be used to generate a Work Order.
D.When an action value is recorded, a Work Order can be generated using the specified Job Plan. Only
one of the values in the ALN domain can be used as an action value.
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-015   certification 000-015   000-015   000-015

NO.12 From which three applications is it possible to create a Work Order? (Choose three.)
A.Assets
B.Routes
C.Job Plan
D.Work View
E.Configuration Items
F.Condition Monitoring
Answer: AEF

IBM   000-015 examen   certification 000-015   certification 000-015   000-015 examen

NO.13 What are the three types of meters?
A.Flow, Utility, Rate
B.Condition, Utility, Gauge
C.Continuous, Condition, Rate
D.Continuous, Gauge, Characteristic
Answer: D

IBM   000-015   000-015   000-015 examen   000-015

NO.14 Which record type(s) can belong to a Collection?
A.Users
B.Asset, Location, Item
C.Asset, Location, Configuration Item
D.Asset, Actual Configuration Item, Deployed Asset, Configuration Item
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification 000-015   000-015   000-015 examen   000-015

NO.15 Which applications record the history of attribute changes made on the Specifications tab, without
having to use e-Audit as defined in Database Configuration?
A.Asset, Configuration Item
B.Job Plan, Ticket Template
C.Item Master, Service Item, Tool, Job Plan
D.Asset, Location, Item Master, Service Item, Tool
Answer: A

IBM   000-015 examen   000-015   certification 000-015

NO.16 Which statement is correct?
A.When creating an Asset, it can be added directly to any storeroom by specifying a Location and rotating
item. The balance in the storeroom is incremented by one.
B.To add a rotating Asset to a storeroom, use the Inventory application and then use the Inventory
Adjustments - Current Balance action to increment the balance by one.
C.When creating an Asset, it can be added directly to a specific site's storeroom by specifying a Location
and rotating item. The balance in the storeroom is incremented by one.
D.When creating an Asset that will be initially held in a storeroom, the user creates the Asset then goes to
the Storeroom application in order to book it into a specific storeroom so that the balance is incremented
by one.
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-015   000-015   000-015   certification 000-015

NO.17 Which item type(s) can be used as a rotating item on both an Asset and a Location?
A.Item only
B.Item and Tool only
C.Item, Service Item, Tool
D.Item and Service Item only
Answer: B

IBM   000-015   000-015   000-015 examen   certification 000-015   000-015

NO.18 When creating a purchase contract, what is the purpose of checking the Change Price on Use field?
A.It specifies that the price in the purchase order (PO) is only an estimated price.
B.It specifies that when a PO is issued against this contract, the price must be changed.
C.It specifies that the price of a given related item can be changed on related POs or purchase requests.
D.It specifies that the price of a given item specified in the Master Contract is reduced or increased, based
on market conditions.
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-015   000-015 examen

NO.19 What is a seasonal-based Preventive Maintenance (PM) record?
A.a PM that defines a period when the PM status is made inactive
B.a PM that defines the specific dates in the future upon which Work Order will be generated
C.a PM with a set of defined days of week or periods of time in a year when the PM is considered active
and is eligible for Work Order generation
D.a PM that defines the days of the week when a Work Order can be generated (for example, Saturday -
Sunday when the production line has stopped)
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-015   000-015   000-015   000-015

NO.20 Which statement is true about Asset hierarchies?
A.A hierarchy of Assets can only be created by using the actions: Apply Item Assembly Structure and
Move/Modify Assets.
B.There are numerous ways of creating or modifying an Asset hierarchy including planning and then
executing a group of Asset moves from the Ticket-based applications.
C.When creating an Asset, it can be assigned a parent Asset. After the record is saved, the hierarchy can
be created from the Spare Parts tab or the action Move/Modify Assets.
D.Asset hierarchies can only be formed for rotating Assets. The most popular methods of creating the
hierarchy are to use the action Apply Item Assembly Structure and Move/Modify Assets in the Asset
application and Move/Swap/Modify in the Work Order Tracking application.
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-015   000-015

NO.21 Click the Exhibit button.
The diagram in the exhibit shows a dialog box that opens when the Select Value option is selected from
the Asset or Location field on a Service Request. The Filter By field has three options User/Custodian,
Public and All.
In which application can the default for this field be changed?
A.Organizations
B.Service Requests
C.Application Designer
D.Database Configuration
Answer: D

IBM   000-015   000-015 examen

NO.22 Which Asset fields must have data for the record to be saved to the database?
A.Site, Location, Type
B.Site, Status, Location
C.Site, Status, Asset Up?
D.Status, Location, Failure Class
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-015   000-015   000-015   000-015 examen

NO.23 What is the purpose of a Condition Rate?
A.to create alternate paths in Workflows
B.to assign relative values to inventory items
C.to assign values to personnel for labor purposes
D.to indicate the costs associated with inventory items
Answer: B

IBM   000-015 examen   certification 000-015

NO.24 Which statement is correct?
A.A condition code can be used on any rotating Asset.
B.A condition code can be added to any type of Asset.
C.A condition code can only be used on a rotating Asset when the item is condition enabled.
D.There is no condition code on an Asset. Condition codes are only associated with items that are
purchased or held in a storeroom.
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-015   certification 000-015   certification 000-015

NO.25 Which statement is correct?
A.The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item.
The value of an Asset specification record is always updateable.
B.The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item.
The value of an Asset specification record is determined from the corresponding attribute's value on the
item specification.
C.The classification of a rotating Asset can be entered by the user and the Asset specification is derived
from the classification you enter. The value of an attribute can be entered by the user. There is no
relationship with the item specification.
D.The classification of a rotating Asset is enterable only if its rotating item has no classification of its own.
When the classification has been entered by the user on the Asset, the attribute values are updateable.
Otherwise, they are read-only and are determined from the corresponding attribute's value on the item
specification.
Answer: B

IBM   000-015 examen   000-015 examen

NO.26 Which three objects have rotating records? (Choose three.)
A.Person
B.Assets
C.Locations
D.Job Plans
E.Item Master
F.Service Items
Answer: BCE

certification IBM   000-015   000-015 examen   000-015   000-015

NO.27 Which statement about an Asset hierarchy is correct?
A.Once created, additional children can always be added to the hierarchy from the Spare Parts tab when
the parent Asset is the current record.
B.Once created, additional children can always be added to the hierarchy as long as the parent is a
rotating Asset, it is not decommissioned, and it is not in a storeroom.
C.An Asset hierarchy can be created from rotating and non-rotating Assets and can be set so that the
hierarchy can not be modified from the Spare Parts tab in the Asset application.
D.An Asset hierarchy can only be created from rotating Assets using the action Apply Item Assembly
Structure. The hierarchy can be locked so that it cannot be modified from the Spare Parts tab in the Asset
application.
Answer: C

IBM   000-015 examen   000-015   certification 000-015   000-015

NO.28 What are the three main differences between the functions of the Move/Modify Assets and Swap
Assets actions in the Assets application and the Move/Swap/Modify action in the Work Order Tracking
application? (Choose three.)
A.Future Asset moves can be planned in the Move/Swap/Modify action.
B.Downtime can be applied to multiple Assets in the Move/Modify Assets action.
C.Meter readings for Assets and Locations can be entered in the Move/Swap/Modify action.
D.The specification records of a Location or a Configuration Item can be modified in the
Move/Swap/Modify action.
E.Future changes to the user and custodian records of Assets and Locations can be planned in the
Move/Swap/Modify action.
F.Modifications can be made to the fields, priority, failure class, calendar and shift and changes can be
applied to multiple Assets in the Move/Modify Assets action.
Answer: ADE

certification IBM   000-015   certification 000-015   certification 000-015   000-015 examen

NO.29 Which statement is correct?
A.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Asset, Location and Configuration Item (CI)
applications.
B.A Service Request, Incident, Problem, Work Order, Change or Release in the Assets, Locations and CI
applications can be created.
C.A Service Request or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications. A Ticket
or Work Order cannot be created from the CI application.
D.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications, but you
can not create an activity or task. A Ticket or Work Order cannot be created from the CI application.
Answer: B

IBM   000-015   000-015 examen   000-015 examen   000-015

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